September 3rd, 2026 at 8:24:34 PM
permalink
I recently came across a new to me version of Casino Hold'em that I can't find any info about online after searching for about an hour.
52 card deck, randomized each hand.
Player must pay an ante size of their choice to play.
Dealer and player are dealt 2 cards.
Player must bet 2x ante to see a flop or fold and surrender the ante. If the player bets, they are guaranteed to see a showdown at the end of the hand.
Player has option of checking or betting 2x ante after flop is revealed.
Player has option of checking or betting 2x ante after turn is revealed.
No betting action after the river is revealed.
Best hand wins between dealer and player.
If player wins, player retains the 1x ante and all of the 2x bets are paid 1:1.
If dealer wins, dealer takes all chips in play.
Example - If a player antes $1, bets $2, bets $2, bets $2 and wins, they will be paid $13 for a $6 profit.
If player bets all hands that are statistically ahead preflop in heads up hold'em, then bets on each allowed street when they are statistically ahead, or checks if behind, is this a beatable proposition? Or is there potential for optimized pre/post flop betting play that could be solved to give the player an edge? If not, what am I missing? Is the 1x ante that isn't paid on a win enough to give the house an edge?
I would like to understand the math behind the conclusion.
52 card deck, randomized each hand.
Player must pay an ante size of their choice to play.
Dealer and player are dealt 2 cards.
Player must bet 2x ante to see a flop or fold and surrender the ante. If the player bets, they are guaranteed to see a showdown at the end of the hand.
Player has option of checking or betting 2x ante after flop is revealed.
Player has option of checking or betting 2x ante after turn is revealed.
No betting action after the river is revealed.
Best hand wins between dealer and player.
If player wins, player retains the 1x ante and all of the 2x bets are paid 1:1.
If dealer wins, dealer takes all chips in play.
Example - If a player antes $1, bets $2, bets $2, bets $2 and wins, they will be paid $13 for a $6 profit.
If player bets all hands that are statistically ahead preflop in heads up hold'em, then bets on each allowed street when they are statistically ahead, or checks if behind, is this a beatable proposition? Or is there potential for optimized pre/post flop betting play that could be solved to give the player an edge? If not, what am I missing? Is the 1x ante that isn't paid on a win enough to give the house an edge?
I would like to understand the math behind the conclusion.

