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January 14th, 2014 at 8:58:05 PM
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This is a neat applet that lets you see how good you
are at coming up with true random sequences. It's
almost impossible, even though to our eye they look
random when we're done with them.
Just enter a series of zeros and 1's in the boxes and
hit calculate. One integer to each box.
http://www.gametheory.net/mike/applets/Random/random.html
are at coming up with true random sequences. It's
almost impossible, even though to our eye they look
random when we're done with them.
Just enter a series of zeros and 1's in the boxes and
hit calculate. One integer to each box.
http://www.gametheory.net/mike/applets/Random/random.html
"It's not called gambling if the math is on your side."
January 14th, 2014 at 9:10:04 PM
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0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 1, 0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0
.9650, .6386, .6550
RANDOM!!!
http://www.gametheory.net/mike/applets/Random/random.html
The main mistake people make in trying to generate their own, "Random," numbers is that when people think, "Random," they automatically assume that the sample need be choppy, so they don't put any runs of more than two or three which would often naturally occur in a sample such as this one.
For example, the probability of four zeroes in a row is (.5)^4 = .0625
Given this probability, the probability of not having four zeroes in a row is .9375, however, we have seventeen total numbers (in a series of 20) that could potentially be the beginning of four consecutive zeroes. The probability of all seventeen of these numbers NOT starting a run of seventeen consecutive zeroes at any point is:
(.9375)^17 = 0.33381949729
Thus, in a sample size of twenty, you are more likely than not to have four zeroes occur at least once. It will happen at least once in about two out of three samples.
.9650, .6386, .6550
RANDOM!!!
http://www.gametheory.net/mike/applets/Random/random.html
The main mistake people make in trying to generate their own, "Random," numbers is that when people think, "Random," they automatically assume that the sample need be choppy, so they don't put any runs of more than two or three which would often naturally occur in a sample such as this one.
For example, the probability of four zeroes in a row is (.5)^4 = .0625
Given this probability, the probability of not having four zeroes in a row is .9375, however, we have seventeen total numbers (in a series of 20) that could potentially be the beginning of four consecutive zeroes. The probability of all seventeen of these numbers NOT starting a run of seventeen consecutive zeroes at any point is:
(.9375)^17 = 0.33381949729
Thus, in a sample size of twenty, you are more likely than not to have four zeroes occur at least once. It will happen at least once in about two out of three samples.
https://wizardofvegas.com/forum/off-topic/gripes/11182-pet-peeves/120/#post815219
January 14th, 2014 at 9:14:11 PM
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I got random on the first try and that was the
last time, the rest were not random.
last time, the rest were not random.
"It's not called gambling if the math is on your side."
January 14th, 2014 at 10:26:29 PM
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not even.Quote: Mission146Thus, in a sample size of twenty,
you are more likely than not to have four zeroes occur at least once.
It will happen at least once in about two out of three samples.
your (.5)^4 = .0625 is just for the next 4 trials not a series of 20 trials.
I do not follow what you are calculating, but I do disagree with your statement
"in a sample size of twenty,
you are more likely than not to have four zeroes occur at least once"
0000 or at least 0000 (4 or more in a row - I use this one)
from the Wizard's method:
https://wizardofodds.com/ask-the-wizard/281/
1- the 22nd 4 step Fibo # gets us there
I show
501,239/1,048,576 = 0.478018761 having at least one such run
547,337/1,048,576 = 0.521981239 NOT having at least one such run
using BruceZ code that Sally linked to
https://wizardofodds.com/ask-the-wizard/281/
1- the 22nd 4 step Fibo # gets us there
I show
501,239/1,048,576 = 0.478018761 having at least one such run
547,337/1,048,576 = 0.521981239 NOT having at least one such run
using BruceZ code that Sally linked to
Event | Run Probability | 1 in |
---|---|---|
0 runs of length 4 or more | 0.521981239 | 1.92 |
at least 1 run of length 4 or more | 0.478018760681152 | 2.09 |
at least 2 runs of length 4 or more | 0.081080436706543 | 12.33 |
at least 3 runs of length 4 or more | 0.003392219543457 | 294.79 |
at least 4 runs of length 4 or more | 0.000008583068848 | 116,508.44 |
I say your math is just wrong for streak probability.
Time to learn how to do the math correctly.
(craps - if I can learn it, easy for the rest)
IF you are trying to figure out the expected number of steaks of length 4 in 20 trials
that is something different, (expected # of runs = 0.5625, an average and not a probability)
one should really learn about streak probability at Sally's page
http://www.pulcinientertainment.com/info/Streak-Calculator-enter.html
it links to this also here at WoV
https://wizardofvegas.com/forum/questions-and-answers/math/4855-ask-the-wizard-correction
But any one can believe what ever they want with streak probabilities.
can you show a simulation showing your value is correct and Sally's is the wrong one?
you said 2 out of 3 or about 66%
I hope so
here is mine using free software
1 million samples of 20
I still see less than 48% chance of at least 1 such run
calculated:
for a run of at least 4 0s in 20 trials = 0.478018760681152
or
0.478018761
using both calculators on Sally's page
the extra credit
for a run of at least 4 1s or 0s in 20 trials looks to be
0.7684193
Now this one is much better
either 1s or 0s
here is a link to learning about this concept
https://wizardofvegas.com/forum/off-topic/general/14542-please-help-a-probability-math-question/
nice how it all tied together
you said 2 out of 3 or about 66%
I hope so
here is mine using free software
1 million samples of 20
I still see less than 48% chance of at least 1 such run
group middle freq freq/100
--------------------------------------------
-0.5 <= x < 0.50 0.00 520911 52.09%
0.50 <= x < 1.50 1.00 398002 39.80%
1.50 <= x < 2.50 2.00 77713 7.77%
2.50 <= x < 3.50 3.00 3365 0.34%
3.50 <= x < 4.50 4.00 9 0.00%
calculated:
for a run of at least 4 0s in 20 trials = 0.478018760681152
or
0.478018761
using both calculators on Sally's page
the extra credit
for a run of at least 4 1s or 0s in 20 trials looks to be
0.7684193
Now this one is much better
either 1s or 0s
here is a link to learning about this concept
https://wizardofvegas.com/forum/off-topic/general/14542-please-help-a-probability-math-question/
nice how it all tied together
Good Luck
winsome johnny (not Win some johnny)
January 14th, 2014 at 11:12:30 PM
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No, Sally's number is definitely correct.
I'm not sure what was wrong with my approach, to be honest.
If the probability of a streak of (at least) four is .0625, then the probability of the next number NOT starting such a streak is .9375.
(.5) + (.5 * .5) + (.5 * .5 * .5) + (.5 * .5 * .5 * .5) = 0.9375
I want that .9375 to fail to happen seventeen consecutive times, so:
.9375^17 = 0.33381949729
Never mind, I see what's wrong now. It's because seventeen consecutive numbers do not have to fail to start the streak, you're already into the twenty if you go 0, 0, 0, 1...then the next number is the fifth overall number, so you don't always get seventeen chances. In fact, you'd almost never get seventeen chances in a sample of 20 decisions.
I'm not sure what was wrong with my approach, to be honest.
If the probability of a streak of (at least) four is .0625, then the probability of the next number NOT starting such a streak is .9375.
(.5) + (.5 * .5) + (.5 * .5 * .5) + (.5 * .5 * .5 * .5) = 0.9375
I want that .9375 to fail to happen seventeen consecutive times, so:
.9375^17 = 0.33381949729
Never mind, I see what's wrong now. It's because seventeen consecutive numbers do not have to fail to start the streak, you're already into the twenty if you go 0, 0, 0, 1...then the next number is the fifth overall number, so you don't always get seventeen chances. In fact, you'd almost never get seventeen chances in a sample of 20 decisions.
https://wizardofvegas.com/forum/off-topic/gripes/11182-pet-peeves/120/#post815219
January 15th, 2014 at 8:07:47 AM
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First try
1.0000 .9630 0.0088
Random!!!
You're not cool if you don't get a 1 on your first try. :P
1.0000 .9630 0.0088
Random!!!
You're not cool if you don't get a 1 on your first try. :P
$1700, 18, 19, 1920, 40, 60,... :/ Thx 'Do it again'. I'll try
January 15th, 2014 at 8:47:20 AM
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You should consider that the seventeen possibilities are not independent, so you cannot simply multiply probabilities.Quote: Mission146
Never mind, I see what's wrong now. It's because seventeen consecutive numbers do not have to fail to start the streak, you're already into the twenty if you go 0, 0, 0, 1...then the next number is the fifth overall number, so you don't always get seventeen chances. In fact, you'd almost never get seventeen chances in a sample of 20 decisions.
Reperiet qui quaesiverit
January 15th, 2014 at 9:13:23 AM
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how about the *first time* it occurs approachQuote: Mission146No, Sally's number is definitely correct.
Never mind, I see what's wrong now.
many use this method as Sally did in her Excel sheet
for a run (at least 4) on the 4th trial = 0.5^4 = 0.0625 (p^run)
we check: 16 outcomes (2^4) and only 0000 is a success for 1/16
I think no one would disagree with this
for a run on the 5th trial but not the 4th = 0.5^5 = 0.03125 (q*p^run)
we sum the 4th and 5th trial prob to get 0.03125+0.0625=0.09375
=4thTrialProb+(q*p^run)
we check: now 32 possible outcomes (2^5) and only 00001,10000 or 00000 is a success for 3/32
the Wizard's method is the 7th (n+2) 4step Fibo# = number of sequences without a run of 4 or more
1,1,2,4,8,15,29 so 29/32
1- 29/32 = 3/32 another check
for a run on the 6th trial but not the 4th or 5th = this gets different as we can now consider it did not happen earlier
=5thTP+(1-3rdTP)*(q*p^run)
0.09375+(1*0.03125)=0.125
of course it could not happen on the 3rd trial here but we look back 4 trials including the 6th one (6,5,4,3)
and so on down the 7th trial to the 20th. keep adding
7thTP=6thTP+(1-4thTP)*(q*p^run)
8thTP=7thTP+(1-5thTP)*(q*p^run) etc
using the Wizard's method to check the 6th trial probability
8th (n+2) 4step Fibo#
29+15+8+4=56 (1,1,2,4,8,15,29,56)
2^6=64
1- 56/64 = 8/64
it does work
the distribution for the first run of 4
the probability that the run of 4 happens on the Nth trial
4 trials = mode
next 4 trials are the same probability
the probability that the run of 4 happens on the Nth trial
4 trials = mode
next 4 trials are the same probability
trial | 4 |
---|---|
1 | 0 |
2 | 0 |
3 | 0 |
4 | 0.0625 |
5 | 0.03125 |
6 | 0.03125 |
7 | 0.03125 |
8 | 0.03125 |
9 | 0.029296875 |
10 | 0.028320313 |
11 | 0.02734375 |
12 | 0.026367188 |
13 | 0.025390625 |
14 | 0.024475098 |
15 | 0.023590088 |
16 | 0.022735596 |
17 | 0.021911621 |
18 | 0.021118164 |
19 | 0.020353317 |
20 | 0.019616127 |
all this good stuff (?) for someone in the future to be a streak expert
for whatever reason
a chart of runs from length 2 to 10
prob of success = 50%
winsome johnny (not Win some johnny)