How much less variance is more hands at lower bet?

$1 9/6 ddb (99%) has var=40. ($5/spin)
.25 triple play 9/6 ddb has var= 50 because triple play adds 1.25x to variance. ($3.75/spin)

I've been told in this forum that more hands at same amount wagered is less variance.
So less $ per spin should be even less variance.
But the math above says differently?!

Edit:
Or were they talking about lower chances of risk of ruin?
ie: Your $1k bankroll will, on avg, earn more tier points at .25 triple play 9/6 ddb than $1 single line 9/6 ddb?

I can't see either of them putting you ahead after 10,000 spins unless you hit a Royal. With 3 chances instead of 1 chance to hit a Royal, I'd think you have a better chance of being ahead after 10K spins with the triple play, but it's not for sure.

Quote: 100xOdds

$1 9/6 ddb (99%) has var=40. ($5/spin)
.25 triple play 9/6 ddb has var= 50 because triple play adds 1.25x to variance. ($3.75/spin)

I've been told in this forum that more hands at same amount wagered is less variance.
So less $ per spin should be even less variance.
But the math above says differently?!

Edit:
Or were they talking about lower chances of risk of ruin?
ie: Your $1k bankroll will, on avg, earn more tier points at .25 triple play 9/6 ddb than $1 single line 9/6 ddb?
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That's for a one unit bet. Multiply the first by 5^2 and the second by 1.25^2. Now they are comparable (units is $^2).