How much less variance is more hands at lower bet?
June 23rd, 2026 at 4:25:38 AM
permalink
$1 9/6 ddb (99%) has var=40. ($5/spin)
.25 triple play 9/6 ddb has var= 50 because triple play adds 1.25x to variance. ($3.75/spin)
I've been told in this forum that more hands at same amount wagered is less variance.
So less $ per spin should be even less variance.
But the math above says differently?!
Edit:
Or were they talking about lower chances of risk of ruin?
ie: Your $1k bankroll will, on avg, earn more tier points at .25 triple play 9/6 ddb than $1 single line 9/6 ddb?
.25 triple play 9/6 ddb has var= 50 because triple play adds 1.25x to variance. ($3.75/spin)
I've been told in this forum that more hands at same amount wagered is less variance.
So less $ per spin should be even less variance.
But the math above says differently?!
Edit:
Or were they talking about lower chances of risk of ruin?
ie: Your $1k bankroll will, on avg, earn more tier points at .25 triple play 9/6 ddb than $1 single line 9/6 ddb?
Last edited by: 100xOdds on Jun 23, 2026
Craps is paradise (Pair of dice).
Lets hear it for the SpeedCount Mathletes :)
