h0tmamma69
h0tmamma69
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April 18th, 2011 at 3:09:00 PM permalink
In the game of CRAPS, when playing 100 games what would the theoretical probability of losing by rolling a 2 be? pleaseeeee help
odiousgambit
odiousgambit
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April 18th, 2011 at 3:21:35 PM permalink
you mean losing on the come-out roll, what can be called one hand, in 100 hands?
the next time Dame Fortune toys with your heart, your soul and your wallet, raise your glass and praise her thus: “Thanks for nothing, you cold-hearted, evil, damnable, nefarious, low-life, malicious monster from Hell!”   She is, after all, stone deaf. ... Arnold Snyder
kp
kp
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April 18th, 2011 at 3:26:10 PM permalink
Offhand I'd estimate at better than 80%.
Doc
Doc
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April 18th, 2011 at 3:40:54 PM permalink
Quote: h0tmamma69

In the game of CRAPS, when playing 100 games what would the theoretical probability of losing by rolling a 2 be? pleaseeeee help


Poorly formed question. For example, you haven't even said what kind of wager you are making. I'll assume you are referring to making a pass line bet. Next, you aren't clear whether you mean the probability of losing at least once, losing every time, or the probability on each pass line bet.

So here's my answer: Each pass line bet has 1 chance in 36 (2.777%) of losing on a come out roll of craps 2. Doing that at least once in 100 come out rolls has a probability of p=1-(35/36)^100=94.022%. But that might not be what you are trying to ask.
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