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Quote: Ace2Suppose you roll a fair die until some face has appeared six times. For instance, your rolls could be 42132253261242 (for six 2's).On average, how many rolls would it take?
Quote: Ace2Suppose you roll a fair die until some face has appeared six times. For instance, your rolls could be 42132253261242 (for six 2's).
On average, how many rolls would it take?
Integrate the following from 0 to infinity:
x*(exp(-x/6)*(1+x/6+x^2/72+x^3/1296+x^4/31104+x^5/933120))^5*exp(-x/6)*(x^5/933120)
The answer is 2597868106693535971 / 131621703842267136 = Approximation: 19.73738396371749
Please show your calculationQuote: EdCollins19.74
Quote: Ace2Suppose you roll a fair die until some face has appeared six times. For instance, your rolls could be 42132253261242 (for six 2's).
On average, how many rolls would it take?
I get 2,597,868,106,693,535,971 / 131,621,703,842,267,136 = about 19.737384
This is a brute-force Markov chain problem which can be worked backwards.
Let (a,b,c,d,e,f) be the state with a 1s, b 2s, ..., f 6s
If E(a,b,c,d,e,f) is the expected number of rolls needed from state (a,b,c,d,e,f):
E(a,b,c,d,e,f) = 1 + 1/6 (E(a+1,b,c,d,e,f) + E(a,b+1,c,d,e,f) + E(a,b,c+1,d,e,f) + E(a,b,c,d+1,e,f) + E(a,b,c,d,e+1,f) + E(a,b,c,d,e,f+1))
Note E(a,b,c,d,e,f) = 0 if any of the variables = 6
If n = 7776 a + 1296 b + 216 c + 36 d + 6 e + f, and F(n) = E(a,b,c,d,e,f), then calculate F(46,655), then F(46,654), and so on down to F(0).
Quote: Ace2Please show your calculation
Sorry. No "calculation." My answer was based upon a quick & dirty simulation I wrote via Excel.
Sub Dice_Rolls()
max_sims = 10000000: Randomize Timer:
For x = 1 To max_sims
For xx = 1 To 36
r_num1 = Int((6 - 1 + 1) * Rnd + 1)
If r_num1 = 1 Then one = one + 1
If r_num1 = 2 Then two = two + 1
If r_num1 = 3 Then three = three + 1
If r_num1 = 4 Then four = four + 1
If r_num1 = 5 Then five = five + 1
If r_num1 = 6 Then six = six + 1
If one = 6 Then
y = y + xx: Exit For
ElseIf two = 6 Then
y = y + xx: Exit For
ElseIf three = 6 Then
y = y + xx: Exit For
ElseIf four = 6 Then
y = y + xx: Exit For
ElseIf five = 6 Then
y = y + xx: Exit For
ElseIf six = 6 Then
y = y + xx: Exit For
End If
Next xx
one = 0: two = 0: three = 0: four = 0: five = 0: six = 0
Next x
MsgBox (y / max_sims)
End Sub
That is the correct answer! I knew the Wizard would get this oneQuote: Wizard
Integrate the following from 0 to infinity:
x*(exp(-x/6)*(1+x/6+x^2/72+x^3/1296+x^4/31104+x^5/933120))^5*exp(-x/6)*(x^5/933120)
The answer is 2597868106693535971 / 131621703842267136 = Approximation: 19.73738396371749
A simulation is great for verifying a calculated solution, but I don't consider it a solution. Most problems are easy to simulate provided your computer has enough horsepowerQuote: EdCollinsSorry. No "calculation." My answer was based upon a quick & dirty simulation I wrote via Excel.
Recommended integral calculator.
There is a more efficient approach to this problem. The expected waiting time to arrive at state S is the sum of the probabilities of not being in state S at all times (just like a geometric series). Using that logic, you get to the formula in one step and integrate over all time:Quote: WizardHere is my solution in more detail (PDF).
Recommended integral calculator.
[{ (x/6)^5/5! + (x/6)^4/4! + (x/6)^3/3! + (x/6)^2/2 + (x/6) + 1} / e^(x/6) ]^6 dx
There is a more efficient approach to this problem. The expected waiting time to arrive at state S is the sum of the probabilities of not being in state S at all times (just like a geometric series). Using that logic, you get to the formula in one step and integrate over all time:Quote: Ace2Recommended integral calculator.
[{ (x/6)^5/5! + (x/6)^4/4! + (x/6)^3/3! + (x/6)^2/2 + (x/6) + 1} / e^(x/6) ]^6 dx
Hmmm. Thank you. I guess I should have thought of that.
Here is a new and improved solution.
A white rook and a black bishop are randomly placed on an empty chessboard.
What is the probability that one of the pieces is attacking the other?
Any chance of a problem for people who don't play chess?Quote: Gialmere
A white rook and a black bishop are randomly placed on an empty chessboard.
What is the probability that one of the pieces is attacking the other?
I get 1456/4032 = 36.111%
for each possible position of rook, it can attack 7 vertical + 7 horizontal = 14
for each possible position of rook, it can be attacked by bishop.....depending on location of rook
-outer "ring" of squares (8x8 border only = 28 squares) attacked by bishop from 7 positions
-next "ring" of squares (6x6 border only = 20 squares) attacked by bishop from 9 positions
-next "ring" of squares (4x4 border only = 12 squares) attacked by bishop from 11 positions
-inside block of squares (2x2 = 4 squares) attacked by bishop from 13 positions
[ (64*14)+(28*7+20*9+12*11+4*13) ] / [64*63] = 1456/4032
Quote: GialmereA white rook and a black bishop are randomly placed on an empty chessboard.
What is the probability that one of the pieces is attacking the other?
Select the bishop's space first
Each of the 28 spaces on the board edge has 7 spaces that can attack the rook
Each of the 20 spaces one space away from the board edge spaces has 9 spaces that can attack the rook
Each of the 12 spaces two spaces away has 11 spaces
The 4 spaces in the center each has 13 spaces
No matter where the bishop is placed, there are 14 spaces from where the rook can attack it, none of which are on spaces where the bishop can attack the rook.
There are 64 squares on which the bishop can be placed; for each one, there are 63 on which the rook can be placed.
The probability is (28 x (7 + 14) + 20 x (9 + 14) + 12 x (11 + 14) + 4 x (13 + 14)) / (64 x 63) = 13/36
Wherever the rook is, it can take the bishop on 7 squares on the same vertical column and 7 on the same row.
If the rook is in on the edge, i.e. A, then there are 7 places (on the diagonal) the bishop can be where it could take the rook.
B means 9 places, C means 11, D means 13.
There are 7 A's, 5 B's, 3 C's and 1 D. Thus the average number of squares where the bishop could be taken is
(7*21+5*23+3*21+1*23)/16 = 22.75.
So the chances of being taken is 22.75/63 = 91/252 (x4) = 13/36 (/7).
A A A A
A B B B
A B C C
A B C D
Quote: chevy
I get 1456/4032 = 36.111%
for each possible position of rook, it can attack 7 vertical + 7 horizontal = 14
for each possible position of rook, it can be attacked by bishop.....depending on location of rook
-outer "ring" of squares (8x8 border only = 28 squares) attacked by bishop from 7 positions
-next "ring" of squares (6x6 border only = 20 squares) attacked by bishop from 9 positions
-next "ring" of squares (4x4 border only = 12 squares) attacked by bishop from 11 positions
-inside block of squares (2x2 = 4 squares) attacked by bishop from 13 positions
[ (64*14)+(28*7+20*9+12*11+4*13) ] / [64*63] = 1456/4032
Quote: ThatDonGuy
Select the bishop's space first
Each of the 28 spaces on the board edge has 7 spaces that can attack the rook
Each of the 20 spaces one space away from the board edge spaces has 9 spaces that can attack the rook
Each of the 12 spaces two spaces away has 11 spaces
The 4 spaces in the center each has 13 spaces
No matter where the bishop is placed, there are 14 spaces from where the rook can attack it, none of which are on spaces where the bishop can attack the rook.
There are 64 squares on which the bishop can be placed; for each one, there are 63 on which the rook can be placed.
The probability is (28 x (7 + 14) + 20 x (9 + 14) + 12 x (11 + 14) + 4 x (13 + 14)) / (64 x 63) = 13/36
Quote: charliepatrickAssume for simplicity the Rook is placed in one of the quarters, say NW. Then the other quarters would create identical chances.
Wherever the rook is, it can take the bishop on 7 squares on the same vertical column and 7 on the same row.
If the rook is in on the edge, i.e. A, then there are 7 places (on the diagonal) the bishop can be where it could take the rook.
B means 9 places, C means 11, D means 13.
There are 7 A's, 5 B's, 3 C's and 1 D. Thus the average number of squares where the bishop could be taken is
(7*21+5*23+3*21+1*23)/16 = 22.75.
So the chances of being taken is 22.75/63 = 91/252 (x4) = 13/36 (/7).A A A A
A B B B
A B C C
A B C D
Correct!
------------------------------
---------------------------------
Quote: Ace2Any chance of a problem for people who don't play chess?
Yes. I have been chess heavy lately but, I'm pretty much out of puzzles. I have a dice one on tap for tomorrow though.
A single die is rolled until a run of six different faces appears. For example, one might roll the sequence
535463261536435344151612534 with only the last six rolls all distinct.
What is the expected number of rolls?
My answer is...Quote: Gialmere
A single die is rolled until a run of six different faces appears. For example, one might roll the sequence
535463261536435344151612534 with only the last six rolls all distinct.
What is the expected number of rolls?
Quote: EdCollinsMy answer is...
64.8 rolls
Incorrect, but you're on the right track.
Quote: GialmereA single die is rolled until a run of six different faces appears. For example, one might roll the sequence
535463261536435344151612534 with only the last six rolls all distinct.
What is the expected number of rolls?
I'm not entirely sure, as I am having a little problem simulating it to confirm the answer...
Let E(N) be the expected number of rolls needed if the N most recent are all different
Suppose the last 5 rolls are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, in order.
If the next roll is 1, then you have 2, 3, 4, 5, 1; if it is 2, you have 3, 4, 5, 2; if it is 3, you have 4, 5, 3; if it is 4, you have 5, 4; if it is 5, you have 5; if it is 6, you are done.
E(5) = 1 + 1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2)+ 1/6 E(3) + 1/6 E(4) + 1/6 E(5) + 1/6 x 0
Similarly, if the last 4 are 1, 2, 3, 4, then a 5 or 6 results in a "run" of 5:
E(4) = 1 + 1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2)+ 1/6 E(3) + 1/6 E(4) + 1/3 E(5)
E(3) = 1 + 1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2)+ 1/6 E(3) + 1/2 E(4)
E(2) = 1 + 1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2)+ 2/3 E(3)
E(1) = 1 + 1/6 E(1) + 5/6 E(2)
E(0) = 1 + E(1)
The first five can be written as five equations in five unknowns:
1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2) + 1/6 E(3) + 1/6 E(4) - 5/6 E(5) = -1
1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2) + 1/6 E(3) - 5/6 E(4) + 1/3 E(5) = -1
1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2) - 5/6 E(3) + 1/2 E(4) = -1
1/6 E(1) - 5/6 E(2) + 2/3 E(3) = -1
-5/6 E(1) + 5/6 E(2) = -1
Solving results in E(1) = 52.8, so the expected number = E(0) = E(1) + 1 = 53.8
Quote: ThatDonGuyI'm not entirely sure, as I am having a little problem simulating it to confirm the answer...
Let E(N) be the expected number of rolls needed if the N most recent are all different
Suppose the last 5 rolls are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, in order.
If the next roll is 1, then you have 2, 3, 4, 5, 1; if it is 2, you have 3, 4, 5, 2; if it is 3, you have 4, 5, 3; if it is 4, you have 5, 4; if it is 5, you have 5; if it is 6, you are done.
E(5) = 1 + 1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2)+ 1/6 E(3) + 1/6 E(4) + 1/6 E(5) + 1/6 x 0
Similarly, if the last 4 are 1, 2, 3, 4, then a 5 or 6 results in a "run" of 5:
E(4) = 1 + 1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2)+ 1/6 E(3) + 1/6 E(4) + 1/3 E(5)
E(3) = 1 + 1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2)+ 1/6 E(3) + 1/2 E(4)
E(2) = 1 + 1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2)+ 2/3 E(3)
E(1) = 1 + 1/6 E(1) + 5/6 E(2)
E(0) = 1 + E(1)
The first five can be written as five equations in five unknowns:
1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2) + 1/6 E(3) + 1/6 E(4) - 5/6 E(5) = -1
1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2) + 1/6 E(3) - 5/6 E(4) + 1/3 E(5) = -1
1/6 E(1) + 1/6 E(2) - 5/6 E(3) + 1/2 E(4) = -1
1/6 E(1) - 5/6 E(2) + 2/3 E(3) = -1
-5/6 E(1) + 5/6 E(2) = -1
Solving results in E(1) = 52.8, so the expected number = E(0) = E(1) + 1 = 53.8
Also incorrect, but also hot on the trail.
Assuming this answer is correct (or close) I find it very interesting that the number of rolls is this high. Intuitively, I'm sure I would have guessed something much lower.
Quote: GialmereAlso incorrect, but also hot on the trail.
I think there's a bug in my equation solver - when I do it by hand, I get:
416/5 = 83.2
Found the problem in my equation solver: it panicked if, when trying to normalize row N, column N was already zero.
Quote: ThatDonGuyI think there's a bug in my equation solver - when I do it by hand, I get:
416/5 = 83.2
Found the problem in my equation solver: it panicked if, when trying to normalize row N, column N was already zero.
Correct!
It's interesting you had to solve it by hand. I guess that, even in this high tech age, John Henry will still occasionally beat the steam drill.
---------------------------------------
So here's the question: Is there a value x=t so that if Gabriel's Horn goes from x=1 to x=t, then the volume and surface area of Gabriel's Horn are equal? If so, can you solve for this value?
Quote: teliotFor this question, watching this video is absolutely encouraged!
So here's the question: Is there a value x=t so that if Gabriel's Horn goes from x=1 to x=t, then the volume and surface area of Gabriel's Horn are equal? If so, can you solve for this value?
Cool video. Though it left my questioning why you can get away with using dx to integrate the volume instead of needing to use ds. Likewise they made a big deal of needing to use ds to integrate for surface area yet they could have ignored that complicating factor and used dx and still shown it was infinite. In fact that’s what they did at the end by showing integers of 1 to infinity of 2piR was infinite.
The paradox further messes with me. If pi units of paint fills the horn, then it must coat all the interior surfaces of the horn. Yet the interior surfaces of the horn have area of infinity. But we painted them!
As to your question, need coffee and paper and pencil before attempting. The video gives the necessary equations so shouldn’t be difficult to attempt to set them equal to one another.
I completely agree with this observation. That part of the video was lame for the infinite horn. On the other hand, maybe you need that full formula for the finite case? Come to think of it, maybe the whole problem is much tougher than I originally thought ... maybe showing that such an x=t exists is all you can do.Quote: unJonCool video. Though it left my questioning why you can get away with using dx to integrate the volume instead of needing to use ds.
And yes, filling the volume with paint should include the paint touching the surface, ergo painting it by default. That's what makes this a paradox.
Quote: teliotSo here's the question: Is there a value x=t so that if Gabriel's Horn goes from x=1 to x=t, then the volume and surface area of Gabriel's Horn are equal? If so, can you solve for this value?
The only value where they are equal is t = 1 (i.e. both volume and surface area are zero), and even this assumes that the disc of radius one at t = 1 is not included in the area.
The surface area = INTEGRAL[1, t] (2 PI / t) dt = 2 PI INTEGRAL[1, t] (1/t) dt = 2 PI (ln t - ln 1) = 2 PI ln t.
The volume = INTEGRAL[1, t] (PI / t^2) dt = PI INTEGRAL[1, t] (1/t^2) dt = PI (-1/t + 1/1) = PI (1 - 1/t).
These are equal when 2 ln t = 1 - 1/t.
2 ln 1 = 1 - 1/1, so they are equal when t = 1.
If t > 1, then they are equal when 2 ln t + 1/t - 1 = 0.
Let f(t) = 2 ln t + 1/t - 1
df/dt = 2/t + 1/t^2; since this is positive for all t > 1, f(t) is strictly increasing for all t > 1, which means f(t) > f(1).
If the disc is included, then the surface area = 2 ln t PI (2 ln t + 1), and they are equal when ln t = -1/t, but for t > 1, ln t > 0 and -1/t < 0.
Another thing that makes it paradoxical: if you have another horn that is y = 2/x rotated around the x-axis, the volume between the two is finite, so you can "paint the outside" of the original horn by filling the gap between the two.
Your solution was my original thought on this. But now, I disagree about the surface area calculation you've given ... thinking out loud, if you replace your formula with "The Surface Area > ..." and the rest of your argument works.Quote: ThatDonGuy
The only value where they are equal is t = 1 (i.e. both volume and surface area are zero), and even this assumes that the disc of radius one at t = 1 is not included in the area.
The surface area = INTEGRAL[1, t] (2 PI / t) dt = 2 PI INTEGRAL[1, t] (1/t) dt = 2 PI (ln t - ln 1) = 2 PI ln t.
The volume = INTEGRAL[1, t] (PI / t^2) dt = PI INTEGRAL[1, t] (1/t^2) dt = PI (-1/t + 1/1) = PI (1 - 1/t).
These are equal when 2 ln t = 1 - 1/t.
2 ln 1 = 1 - 1/1, so they are equal when t = 1.
If t > 1, then they are equal when 2 ln t + 1/t - 1 = 0.
Let f(t) = 2 ln t + 1/t - 1
df/dt = 2/t + 1/t^2; since this is positive for all t > 1, f(t) is strictly increasing for all t > 1, which means f(t) > f(1).
If the disc is included, then the surface area = 2 ln t, and they are equal when ln t = -1/t, but for t > 1, ln t > 0 and -1/t < 0.
I guess I have always disagreed with this as a "paradox". The problem I always had was with equating surface area to volume. Gabriel's Horn hides this in a calculation where we concentrate on one integral being finite but another is infinite. But consider the x-y plane. The surface area of that is infinite, but the volume of paint required to "paint" it is 0. In the case of Gabriel's Horn, you go out and buy your can of paint with volume, pi "units", you paint the inside (or outside) using up 0 "units", and you still have pi "units" of paint left to fill the horn with.
As to Teliot's original question, I agree with the calculations Teliot and ThatDonGuy discussed...but if I go back to comparing surface area to volume, does equating them have some physical or geometric meaning I am missing?
Quote: chevy
I guess I have always disagreed with this as a "paradox". The problem I always had was with equating surface area to volume. Gabriel's Horn hides this in a calculation where we concentrate on one integral being finite but another is infinite. But consider the x-y plane. The surface area of that is infinite, but the volume of paint required to "paint" it is 0. In the case of Gabriel's Horn, you go out and buy your can of paint with volume, pi "units", you paint the inside (or outside) using up 0 "units", and you still have pi "units" of paint left to fill the horn with.
As to Teliot's original question, I agree with the calculations Teliot and ThatDonGuy discussed...but if I go back to comparing surface area to volume, does equating them have some physical or geometric meaning I am missing?
These are good points. But there is a natural relationship between surface area and volume. And, for me, there is some impact to the paradox. Like this: here is an infinite amount of paper for you to take and use all of it but create a shape with a finite amount of volume. You could not take that paper and make a sphere with finite volume. But you could make a Gabriel’s Horn. To your point you could also just lie it flat and make a plane (though no volume really “enclosed” there).
Quote: teliotYour solution was my original thought on this. But now, I disagree about the surface area calculation you've given ... thinking out loud, if you replace your formula with "The Surface Area > ..." and the rest of your argument works.Quote: ThatDonGuy
The only value where they are equal is t = 1 (i.e. both volume and surface area are zero), and even this assumes that the disc of radius one at t = 1 is not included in the area.
The surface area = INTEGRAL[1, t] (2 PI / t) dt = 2 PI INTEGRAL[1, t] (1/t) dt = 2 PI (ln t - ln 1) = 2 PI ln t.
The volume = INTEGRAL[1, t] (PI / t^2) dt = PI INTEGRAL[1, t] (1/t^2) dt = PI (-1/t + 1/1) = PI (1 - 1/t).
These are equal when 2 ln t = 1 - 1/t.
2 ln 1 = 1 - 1/1, so they are equal when t = 1.
If t > 1, then they are equal when 2 ln t + 1/t - 1 = 0.
Let f(t) = 2 ln t + 1/t - 1
df/dt = 2/t + 1/t^2; since this is positive for all t > 1, f(t) is strictly increasing for all t > 1, which means f(t) > f(1).
If the disc is included, then the surface area = 2 ln t, and they are equal when ln t = -1/t, but for t > 1, ln t > 0 and -1/t < 0.
I can see where the surface area in "if the disc is included" is wrong; it should be PI (2 ln t + 1). Is that what you were referring to?
Interesting comparison of using infinite paper to create a finite volume Gabriel's Horn, but not a sphere. To that end I concede, there are intrinsic relationships between surface area and volume.
I think I like your implied style "Can you make an object with infinite surface area and finite (non-zero) volume?" as a better wording than the video's "paint it" paradox.
My objection was 2D vs 3D, and not really an infinity issue. My objection still holds for a 1x1x1 cube....takes zero volume of paint to coat the inside(surface area), but 1 volume unit of paint to fill it. We wouldn't compare 6 "units" to coat it with 1 "unit" to fill it.
if you want an exact value for the surface area over a finite interval, you cannot disregard the term in the surface area integral that is disregarded in the video in the infinite upper limit case.Quote: ThatDonGuyQuote: teliotYour solution was my original thought on this. But now, I disagree about the surface area calculation you've given ... thinking out loud, if you replace your formula with "The Surface Area > ..." and the rest of your argument works.Quote: ThatDonGuy
The only value where they are equal is t = 1 (i.e. both volume and surface area are zero), and even this assumes that the disc of radius one at t = 1 is not included in the area.
The surface area = INTEGRAL[1, t] (2 PI / t) dt = 2 PI INTEGRAL[1, t] (1/t) dt = 2 PI (ln t - ln 1) = 2 PI ln t.
The volume = INTEGRAL[1, t] (PI / t^2) dt = PI INTEGRAL[1, t] (1/t^2) dt = PI (-1/t + 1/1) = PI (1 - 1/t).
These are equal when 2 ln t = 1 - 1/t.
2 ln 1 = 1 - 1/1, so they are equal when t = 1.
If t > 1, then they are equal when 2 ln t + 1/t - 1 = 0.
Let f(t) = 2 ln t + 1/t - 1
df/dt = 2/t + 1/t^2; since this is positive for all t > 1, f(t) is strictly increasing for all t > 1, which means f(t) > f(1).
If the disc is included, then the surface area = 2 ln t, and they are equal when ln t = -1/t, but for t > 1, ln t > 0 and -1/t < 0.
I can see where the surface area in "if the disc is included" is wrong; it should be PI (2 ln t + 1). Is that what you were referring to?
For example, find the limit x = t that gives a surface area equal to twice the volume. I have no idea how to do this.
Quote: chevy
My objection was 2D vs 3D, and not really an infinity issue. My objection still holds for a 1x1x1 cube....takes zero volume of paint to coat the inside(surface area), but 1 volume unit of paint to fill it. We wouldn't compare 6 "units" to coat it with 1 "unit" to fill it.
Yes agree with your point here.
Then space filling curves should be equally objectionable. A one dimensional line filling two-dimensional space.Quote: chevyunJon:
Interesting comparison of using infinite paper to create a finite volume Gabriel's Horn, but not a sphere. To that end I concede, there are intrinsic relationships between surface area and volume.
I think I like your implied style "Can you make an object with infinite surface area and finite (non-zero) volume?" as a better wording than the video's "paint it" paradox.
My objection was 2D vs 3D, and not really an infinity issue. My objection still holds for a 1x1x1 cube....takes zero volume of paint to coat the inside(surface area), but 1 volume unit of paint to fill it. We wouldn't compare 6 "units" to coat it with 1 "unit" to fill it.
Quote: teliotif you want an exact value for the surface area over a finite interval, you cannot disregard the term in the surface area integral that is disregarded in the video in the infinite upper limit case.
For example, find the limit x = t that gives a surface area equal to twice the volume. I have no idea how to do this.
Maybe I am calculating it wrong, but I thought the surface area = the integral that sums the circumferences of the circles from x = 1 to x = t.
The circumference of the circle at x is 2 PI (1/x), whose integral with respect to x is 2 PI ln (x), so the integral over x = 1 to t is 2 PI ln t - 2 PI ln 1 = 2 PI (ln t - 0) = 2 PI ln t.
Then again, that method doesn't seem to work when I try it with calculating the surface area of a sphere...
watch the video @13:30 and you will see what's going wrong with your calculation method.Quote: ThatDonGuyMaybe I am calculating it wrong, but I thought the surface area = the integral that sums the circumferences of the circles from x = 1 to x = t.
The circumference of the circle at x is 2 PI (1/x), whose integral with respect to x is 2 PI ln (x), so the integral over x = 1 to t is 2 PI ln t - 2 PI ln 1 = 2 PI (ln t - 0) = 2 PI ln t.
Then again, that method doesn't seem to work when I try it with calculating the surface area of a sphere...
I have found this link with a PDF
(If this doesn't work the link is here https://www.crosswordsolver.org/forum/799536/listener-4647/ but the page might have spoilers lower down as it's a forum.)
Quote: teliotwatch the video @13:30 and you will see what's going wrong with your calculation method.
The surface area for a Gabriel's Horn of length t is the integral from 1 to t of 2*pi*sqrt(1-1/x^4)/x.
If for simplicity we let a == sqrt(1+1/t^4) and b == sqrt(2) then this integral is
Area = (pi/2)*(2*(b-a) + ln((1+a)*(b-1)/((-1+a)*(b+1))))
As shown in the video,
Volume = pi*(1-1/t)
Set Area =Volume and calculate t.
As ThatDonGuy indicated earlier in the thread, the only value of t that makes them equal is t=1
Dog Hand
Quote: teliotThen space filling curves should be equally objectionable. A one dimensional line filling two-dimensional space.
Perhaps it should. Certainly counter-intuitive, but somehow comparing cardinality of two infinite sets (number of points on unit interval to number of points in unit square (for example)) doesn't bother me as much.
I honestly don't know much about space-filling curves beyond a quick wikipedia read. Maybe my mind is limited to differentiable cases.
(From Wikipedia)
Space-filling curves are special cases of fractal curves. No differentiable space-filling curve can exist. Roughly speaking, differentiability puts a bound on how fast the curve can turn.
Well, there is a parameter that we are missing and assuming is everywhere equal - the thickness of the coat of paint.
As the flare of the horn stretches out to infinity, the finite thickness of a coat of paint will eventually place some of the coat outside of the "defined volume" of the interior of the horn. Even if the thickness of the coat is one molecule in width, there is an infinite length of horn's flare that is closer to the "length" of the horn than one molecular width.
The problem is really in saying that we fill the horn with paint -because the paint volume becomes infinitely thin as the horn flares out to infinity. Thus, the paint itself must progressively become infinitely thin as the horn flares to infinity. It is this requirement for infinite thinning of the paint layer on the interior of horn that allows a finite volume of paint to cover an infinite surface area.
There is a building of 100 floors
-If an egg drops from the Nth floor or above it will break.
-If it's dropped from any floor below, it will not break.
You're given 2 eggs.
How do you find N in the minimum number of drops?
I'm trying to imagine the thickness of the paint out near x=Tree(3) ...Quote: gordonm888How can you fill the horn with paint without painting the interior surface?
Well, there is a parameter that we are missing and assuming is everywhere equal - the thickness of the coat of paint.
As the flare of the horn stretches out to infinity, the finite thickness of a coat of paint will eventually place some of the coat outside of the "defined volume" of the interior of the horn. Even if the thickness of the coat is one molecule in width, there is an infinite length of horn's flare that is closer to the "length" of the horn than one molecular width.
The problem is really in saying that we fill the horn with paint -because the paint volume becomes infinitely thin as the horn flares out to infinity. Thus, the paint itself must progressively become infinitely thin as the horn flares to infinity. It is this requirement for infinite thinning of the paint layer on the interior of horn that allows a finite volume of paint to cover an infinite surface area.
No, really, infinite surface area and finite volume have nothing to do with painting, but it's the painting that makes it conceptually difficult to believe.
Quote: GialmereHmm. I'm not sure what the status of this thread is but, here is a classic math puzzle (which I hope hasn't been posted before)...
There is a building of 100 floors
-If an egg drops from the Nth floor or above it will break.
-If it's dropped from any floor below, it will not break.
You're given 2 eggs.
How do you find N in the minimum number of drops?
I think it has been posted before - in any event, I'm pretty sure I've heard of it, so I'll post what I think is a solution, although I don't have a definitive proof of it yet.
Drop the first egg from the 1st, 3rd, 6th, 10th, ..., floors until either it breaks or you drop it from the 91st floor without breaking.
Go back to 1 floor above the highest one from which you dropped the first egg without breaking, and drop the second egg from each floor until it does.
For example, if it breaks on the 45th floor, the last successful floor was 36, so drop the second egg from the 37th, 38th, 39th,... flooors until it breaks.
The (worst case) number of drops required for this can be represented by the function:
H/x + (x-1)
Where x is the chosen interval, and H is the height of the building in terms of floors.
To find the minimum, set the first derivative of the above function equal to zero:
-H/x2 +1 = 0, which simplifies to x = H1/2
Given H = 100, x must be 10. So, we would then drop the first egg from every 10th floor (starting at floor 10) until it breaks. Then, drop the second egg from the floor directly above where the penultimate drop took place, and go up one floor at a time for subsequent drops until it breaks, indicating floor 'N.' This will take a maximum of 19 drops (when N=99).
Plan A: It seems reasonable that with one egg you could drop from floor 1, floor 2... and just work your way up until you find N. Average number of drops about 50.
With two eggs Plan B, not optimal, is to narrow that range to either 0-50 or 51-100 by dropping one from floor 50, and repeating as above. Average number of drops about 25 + 1. A similar plan is to go up in even numbers (dropping from floor 2,4,6 etc and then when the egg breaks see if it would have dropped from one floor lower. Similarly 25+1.
Plan C, not optimal, is to drop the egg from floor 33. If it breaks go from 0-32. If it doesn't try floor 66. This has a lower average.
Plan D, not optimal, is to drop egg from 10,20,30 etc then hone in on the last digit with the second egg. While this is quicker for low numbers, it takes quite a while with the higher ones.
Plan E, is the best I have found so far (although I don't know how to prove whether it's a minimum).
Suppose you try to ensure the worst case scenario is you needed 14 drops, then that might be better. So for instance if your first drop was on floor 14, then it could take a worst case of 14 to find the floor (14,1,2,3...13). However If you had more drops before the first egg broke, then you might want the gaps smaller. So one plan is drop an egg at 14,14+13=27,27+12=39 etc. and the work your way up. 14 27 39 50 60 69 77 84 90 95 98 seems a good plan and ensures the worst case is 14, I think this gives an average of about 10.35. (I've also ignored that once 99 doesn't break you know it's 100, so the average would be 10.34.)
Quote: GialmereHow do you find N in the minimum number of drops?
Are you asking for the minimum mean N or the minimum maximum N?
If it's the maximum N, then I get the same answer as Don. Looks like the maximum number of drops needed is ...
It's probably the same answer as for the mean N as well.
Quote: charliepatrickHere are various plans - starting with the worst!
Plan A: It seems reasonable that with one egg you could drop from floor 1, floor 2... and just work your way up until you find N. Average number of drops about 50.
With two eggs Plan B, not optimal, is to narrow that range to either 0-50 or 51-100 by dropping one from floor 50, and repeating as above. Average number of drops about 25 + 1. A similar plan is to go up in even numbers (dropping from floor 2,4,6 etc and then when the egg breaks see if it would have dropped from one floor lower. Similarly 25+1.
Plan C, not optimal, is to drop the egg from floor 33. If it breaks go from 0-32. If it doesn't try floor 66. This has a lower average.
Plan D, not optimal, is to drop egg from 10,20,30 etc then hone in on the last digit with the second egg. While this is quicker for low numbers, it takes quite a while with the higher ones.
Plan E, is the best I have found so far (although I don't know how to prove whether it's a minimum).
Suppose you try to ensure the worst case scenario is you needed 14 drops, then that might be better. So for instance if your first drop was on floor 14, then it could take a worst case of 14 to find the floor (14,1,2,3...13). However If you had more drops before the first egg broke, then you might want the gaps smaller. So one plan is drop an egg at 14,14+13=27,27+12=39 etc. and the work your way up. 14 27 39 50 60 69 77 84 90 95 98 seems a good plan and ensures the worst case is 14, I think this gives an average of about 10.35. (I've also ignored that once 99 doesn't break you know it's 100, so the average would be 10.34.)
Quote: WizardAre you asking for the minimum mean N or the minimum maximum N?
If it's the maximum N, then I get the same answer as Don. Looks like the maximum number of drops needed is ...14
It's probably the same answer as for the mean N as well.
Correct!
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Saw a sign at a farm that said, "duck, eggs."
I was contemplating the use of the comma when it hit me.