Calculating the StdDev on multi-hand Video Poker

Help required please . . .

I'm endeavouring to calculate 3 StdDevs from the EV for 9/6 Job playing 20 hands simultaneously. I've picked up the HE at 0.0054, and am confident in doing the sums on a single hand, but am unclear as to how to factor in the impact of the 19 other different outcomes against the initial cards being held.

I've just completed two sessions of 145x20 hands, and 319x20 hands, and the results are -8.14% and -7.85% respectively. I appreciate that VP can be a high variance game, but am interested to know where these sit in the bell curve.

Thanks in advance.

I'm also curious about this. How do 3 way, 5, 10, 50, 100 compare to playing that many hands of single line?

This may help. BTW, what ever happened to Jazbo? Haven't heard from him in a long time.

http://jazbo.com/

Go to the Video poker section and look at the "N-Play Bankroll"

Thanks. I finally got around to that, but it didn't really fit the bill.

Quote: surrender88s

I'm also curious about this. How do 3 way, 5, 10, 50, 100 compare to playing that many hands of single line?

I'm also curious about this, and rather than make a new topic I thought I'd post here.. Does playing a 9/6 JB singlehand machine have more/less/equal EV than playing a 3/5/25/50/100 machine? I understand that the variance is greater for the multihands as you are playing more hands/hr, but to me it would seem as though the multihand machines would be slightly worse as you have to replay the same hand X times. I know there are opportunities this can payoff big, but only if something is dealt to you in the first hand. Otherwise there are more times than not you will be holding high cards or discarding everything. which will compound the number of losing hands, right? or are my assumptions really off base?

Quote: Goethe

I've just completed two sessions of 145x20 hands, and 319x20 hands, and the results are -8.14% and -7.85% respectively.

not many hands played to use the bell curve
and 20 play even

Quote: Goethe

I appreciate that VP can be a high variance game,

appreciate
sounds funny but works

Quote: Goethe

but am interested to know where these sit in the bell curve.

i say
there is NO bell curve for 9280 hands played even with multi-hands played per round

the Wizard has pointed this out B4 2
example of NOT normal distribution
most normal distributions using the bell curve for simple examples have the mean and mode and median being equal
not at VP does his happen under 500k hands played i say


===================================
why do you think this produces a normal distribution (the famous bell curve)

many would like to know


PLUS
the bell curve (the concept) is an approximation, one should know, and sometimes a very good one, sometimes not

why not just calculate this and get an exact answer (or close to exact)
computers using a software program can calculate
but they may not have a 20 play version unless it is made first

interesting
i says

The Wizard has an Appendix on the topic. He doesn't show calculations, but it might show you what you are looking for.

Quote: ajemeister

I'm also curious about this, and rather than make a new topic I thought I'd post here.. Does playing a 9/6 JB singlehand machine have more/less/equal EV than playing a 3/5/25/50/100 machine? I understand that the variance is greater for the multihands as you are playing more hands/hr, but to me it would seem as though the multihand machines would be slightly worse as you have to replay the same hand X times. I know there are opportunities this can payoff big, but only if something is dealt to you in the first hand. Otherwise there are more times than not you will be holding high cards or discarding everything. which will compound the number of losing hands, right? or are my assumptions really off base?

The dealt big wins and the dealt crap hands balance each other out perfectly in terms of return and the return is unchanged from a single line game.

Think of it this way. In a single line game of 9/6 JoB, one would expect a 99.54% return if one was dealt each of the 2,598,960 starting hands just once and played them all optimally. Correct?

Now if someone was playing 3 play they would also expect a 99.54% return (again assuming perfect play) if they got every starting hand just once to hold among all the three hands played.

Now generally speaking, I've hoped for years that Mike or JB would elaborate on the discussion of multiline variance in VP in much more detail than what is currently covered in the WOO site.

Hell I don't even know how you calculate "deal" and "draw" variance as currently described on the WOO page.