flysy
flysy
  • Threads: 1
  • Posts: 1
Joined: Jun 28, 2012
June 28th, 2012 at 12:47:49 PM permalink
I need some advice. Let's say I am playing backgammon and I am about to roll both dice. What are the odds that one of the die will be a 4 (no combinations like 3+1 or 2+2...)?
I assume it's 1/6 + 1/6 = 1/3.
My rationale is that if you place a bet that one out of two coins will be heads, the odds are 1.0 (1/2 +1/2)
DJTeddyBear
DJTeddyBear
  • Threads: 207
  • Posts: 10995
Joined: Nov 2, 2009
June 28th, 2012 at 12:54:04 PM permalink
Not exactly.

Think about the 36 combinations of dice throws.

5 had a 4 on one die and not the other, 5 have a 4 on the other and not the first. One combination has a 4 on both.

Therefore, its 11/36.


Similarly, the odds of getting heads when flipping two coins is either 75% for at least one head, or 50% for exactly one head.
I invented a few casino games. Info: http://www.DaveMillerGaming.com/ ————————————————————————————————————— Superstitions are silly, childish, irrational rituals, born out of fear of the unknown. But how much does it cost to knock on wood? 😁
  • Jump to: