SOMEONE MATHMATTICALLY PLEASE EXPLAIN THIS TO ME!

Alright so I'm completely puzzled on this... Once a year we have a craps game just family members nothing crazy, but I have a couple people who will roll and hit a 6 or 8 then bet even money on this point. They always end up at the end of the night. How does this work? I know if you play at the boat you have to bet 5 to win 6 or vise versa. So wouldnt the person who is betting against them come out ahead almost 100% of the time by the end of the night after doing this hundreds of times? I'm on like year 4 of playing, and they win every single time. Is this just a horseshoe up there bum or am I just super unlucky. Dice are not loaded I've spun them on there axis, rolled one die numerous times to see if one number came up more then others. Lol this is how paranoid this has made me!

Once a year data? Your sample size is too small to mean anything, not to mention the data collected has to be a bit sloppy and dependent on memory likely. You are right in thinking the edge against them is huge though, assuming everything is on the up and up.

So long as the dice are ensured fair and the odds on the payouts aren't in the players favor, then let them keep playing. When they hit any kind of significant amount of rolls, you'll see your EV coming more true.

If this is a family craps game once a year for about an hour or two (what, like 200-300 rolls?) then I agree with odiousgambit you don't have any decent kind of sampling size to make any meaningful statistical conclusions.

If they're "up to something" then just like any casino... Watch what they do every play and write it down. If you're so inclined then do the math on their playing style and see for yourself given the table odds/etc.