math question
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August 4th, 2015 at 5:56:31 PM
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If the hand happens 1 in 43,000 about and you hit it 3 times in 5,000 hands what are the odds of this? How is the math done when it is not consecutive occurrences?
August 5th, 2015 at 8:50:46 AM
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normally this would be a binomial probability type question
but unless one uses very accurate calculator(s)
this is better as a Poisson distribution
i get for exactly 3 events in 5k trials (all independent of course)
1 in 4287
and for at least 3 (3 or more)
1 in 4163
random variable = 3
Average rate of success = 5000*(1/43000) = 0.11627907
http://stattrek.com/online-calculator/poisson.aspx
if this is about a Royal Flush in Video Poker, sounds like how I started out
fun when they hit and often!
but unless one uses very accurate calculator(s)
this is better as a Poisson distribution
i get for exactly 3 events in 5k trials (all independent of course)
1 in 4287
and for at least 3 (3 or more)
1 in 4163
random variable = 3
Average rate of success = 5000*(1/43000) = 0.11627907
http://stattrek.com/online-calculator/poisson.aspx
if this is about a Royal Flush in Video Poker, sounds like how I started out
fun when they hit and often!
I Heart Vi Hart
August 10th, 2015 at 2:15:15 PM
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Quote: mustangsallynormally this would be a binomial probability type question
but unless one uses very accurate calculator(s)
this is better as a Poisson distribution
i get for exactly 3 events in 5k trials (all independent of course)
1 in 4287
and for at least 3 (3 or more)
1 in 4163
random variable = 3
Average rate of success = 5000*(1/43000) = 0.11627907
if this is about a Royal Flush in Video Poker, sounds like how I started out
fun when they hit and often!
August 10th, 2015 at 2:24:06 PM
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Quote: gkr
Are there any probability tables available showing the probability on rolling the #8 starting with roll 1 and going on
from there, if the #8 does not come in.
Or possible the equation for computing this.
Thanks
