Suppose you can win 60% of your sessions in a given casino game. And suppose further that the result of each session will take one of only two forms: (a) you'll lose your entire buy-in or (b) you'll double your buy-in and quit. (So, as a hypothetical example, say you always buy in for $200 when playing no-limit hold 'em, and you either lose the entire $200 or walk with exactly $200 in profit.) Now, in this example, how many buy-ins would you need to have, as a "lifetime bankroll," in order to assure yourself a 95% probability of not losing your entire bankroll?
Thanks!
With a 60% success rate, you have a 6.4% chance of three consecutive failures. You have a 2.56% chance of four consecutive failures. So I'd say the answer is $800.
FYI: You have a 1.024% chance of five consecutive failures.
Quote: DJTeddyBearSounds simple to me.
With a 60% success rate, you have a 6.4% chance of three consecutive failures. You have a 2.56% chance of four consecutive failures. So I'd say the answer is $800.
FYI: You have a 1.024% chance of five consecutive failures.
You need to consider the case of 1 win 5 losses, and all the other sequences which have a 4 more losses than wins.
For example 32 wins and 36 losses is about a 1% probability.
You want a RoR of <= 5%
Your per session WR is 40
Your per session SD is 195.95918
So 0.05 = e^(-2*40*BR/(195.95918^2))
BR ~ $1438
Call it an even $1500. You'll go bust with less than 5% probability.
This is old school stuff in Poker and Blackjack (forgot to add sports betting)
(only works for positive EVs)
look for a BruceZ archive for a proof (no link you can Google it, I have it in a spreadsheet)
using ev and sd per session (I used 1 for your session buy-in)
ev = 0.2
sd = 0.979795897
[sd = for even money = 2* SQRT(P*(1-P))]
ror = 0.05
Bankroll
B = [-(s.d.)^2 x ln r]/2ev
Excel: = (-(st_dev)^2*LN(ror))/(2*ev)
7.19 units (agrees with above post results)
RoR
r = e^[(-2ev x B)/(s.d.)^2]
Excel: =EXP((-2*ev*bankroll)/(st_dev^2))
use 7 unit Bankroll = 5.4114%
B units prob ruin
8 0.035673993
9 0.023517746
10 0.015503854
11 0.01022077
12 0.006737947
Good Luck
Once you've hit that state, you can no longer bet, and the series is over.
My guess is 9 units.
Quote: boymimboWhy do you assume the Standard Deviation is that number?
He doesn't assume.
[(.6)(200)^2 + (.4)(-200)^2 - (40)^2)]^0.5 = 195.96
Quote: boymimboSo, really you're looking at a infinite series of plays where you have less than a 5% probability of reaching that particular state over a period of time.
Once you've hit that state, you can no longer bet, and the series is over.
My guess is 9 units.
I concur. I believe that there is a 4.3025% chance of ruin with a 9 unit bankroll.
Does not sound right.Quote: CrystalMathI concur. I believe that there is a 4.3025% chance of ruin with a 9 unit bankroll.
Just using the Gambler's Ruin Formula
9 unit bankroll
.6 = success
to
double a
$9 bankroll
97.46471899%
ruin = 2.53528101%
hit 50 units
97.3987705%
ruin: 2.6012295%
simulation to hit 1,000 units before ruin
97.46%
ruin: 2.54%
close to the 2.3517746 % value returned by the RoR formula
Quote: 7crapsDoes not sound right.
Just using the Gambler's Ruin Formula
9 unit bankroll
.6 = success
to
double a
$9 bankroll
97.46471899%
ruin = 2.53528101%
hit 50 units
97.3987705%
ruin: 2.6012295%
simulation to hit 1,000 units before ruin
97.46%
ruin: 2.54%
close to the 2.3517746 % value returned by the RoR formula
Yep, I had a mistake. There is a 2.6012% chance of ruin with a 9 unit bankroll (I match exactly your number for hitting 50 units).
Quote: boymimboDoesn't the standard deviation change with the number of trials: ((np(1-p))^.5
Yes, but then your WinRate changes too. If you wanted to look at it over, say 4 trials, your SD increases by a factor of 2, but your WR increases by a factor of 4.
In the RoR formula, there is a WR/SD^2 component. So the same ratio is maintained.