doctordan
doctordan
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August 8th, 2013 at 3:34:14 AM permalink
Okay, Wizard of Odds hive mind. Here's my question:

Suppose you can win 60% of your sessions in a given casino game. And suppose further that the result of each session will take one of only two forms: (a) you'll lose your entire buy-in or (b) you'll double your buy-in and quit. (So, as a hypothetical example, say you always buy in for $200 when playing no-limit hold 'em, and you either lose the entire $200 or walk with exactly $200 in profit.) Now, in this example, how many buy-ins would you need to have, as a "lifetime bankroll," in order to assure yourself a 95% probability of not losing your entire bankroll?

Thanks!
Beethoven9th
Beethoven9th
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August 8th, 2013 at 4:21:37 AM permalink
Don't mean to sound like a smarta**, but what's the purpose of this question? Thanks.
Fighting BS one post at a time!
DJTeddyBear
DJTeddyBear
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August 8th, 2013 at 7:02:59 AM permalink
Sounds simple to me.

With a 60% success rate, you have a 6.4% chance of three consecutive failures. You have a 2.56% chance of four consecutive failures. So I'd say the answer is $800.

FYI: You have a 1.024% chance of five consecutive failures.
I invented a few casino games. Info: http://www.DaveMillerGaming.com/ ————————————————————————————————————— Superstitions are silly, childish, irrational rituals, born out of fear of the unknown. But how much does it cost to knock on wood? 😁
thecesspit
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August 8th, 2013 at 7:09:53 AM permalink
Quote: DJTeddyBear

Sounds simple to me.

With a 60% success rate, you have a 6.4% chance of three consecutive failures. You have a 2.56% chance of four consecutive failures. So I'd say the answer is $800.

FYI: You have a 1.024% chance of five consecutive failures.



You need to consider the case of 1 win 5 losses, and all the other sequences which have a 4 more losses than wins.

For example 32 wins and 36 losses is about a 1% probability.
"Then you can admire the real gambler, who has neither eaten, slept, thought nor lived, he has so smarted under the scourge of his martingale, so suffered on the rack of his desire for a coup at trente-et-quarante" - Honore de Balzac, 1829
jc2286
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August 8th, 2013 at 9:11:44 AM permalink
The formula for Risk of Ruin is e^(-2*WR*BR/(SD^2))

You want a RoR of <= 5%
Your per session WR is 40
Your per session SD is 195.95918

So 0.05 = e^(-2*40*BR/(195.95918^2))
BR ~ $1438

Call it an even $1500. You'll go bust with less than 5% probability.
7craps
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August 8th, 2013 at 9:36:23 AM permalink
I agree too.
This is old school stuff in Poker and Blackjack (forgot to add sports betting)
(only works for positive EVs)
look for a BruceZ archive for a proof (no link you can Google it, I have it in a spreadsheet)

using ev and sd per session (I used 1 for your session buy-in)
ev = 0.2
sd = 0.979795897
[sd = for even money = 2* SQRT(P*(1-P))]
ror = 0.05

Bankroll
B = [-(s.d.)^2 x ln r]/2ev
Excel: = (-(st_dev)^2*LN(ror))/(2*ev)

7.19 units (agrees with above post results)

RoR
r = e^[(-2ev x B)/(s.d.)^2]
Excel: =EXP((-2*ev*bankroll)/(st_dev^2))

use 7 unit Bankroll = 5.4114%
B units	prob ruin
8 0.035673993
9 0.023517746
10 0.015503854
11 0.01022077
12 0.006737947

Good Luck
winsome johnny (not Win some johnny)
boymimbo
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August 8th, 2013 at 9:45:09 AM permalink
So, really you're looking at a infinite series of plays where you have less than a 5% probability of reaching that particular state over a period of time.

Once you've hit that state, you can no longer bet, and the series is over.

My guess is 9 units.
----- You want the truth! You can't handle the truth!
boymimbo
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August 8th, 2013 at 9:51:42 AM permalink
Why do you assume the Standard Deviation is that number?
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tringlomane
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August 8th, 2013 at 10:05:33 AM permalink
Quote: boymimbo

Why do you assume the Standard Deviation is that number?



He doesn't assume.

[(.6)(200)^2 + (.4)(-200)^2 - (40)^2)]^0.5 = 195.96
CrystalMath
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August 8th, 2013 at 11:38:39 AM permalink
Quote: boymimbo

So, really you're looking at a infinite series of plays where you have less than a 5% probability of reaching that particular state over a period of time.

Once you've hit that state, you can no longer bet, and the series is over.

My guess is 9 units.



I concur. I believe that there is a 4.3025% chance of ruin with a 9 unit bankroll.
I heart Crystal Math.
boymimbo
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August 8th, 2013 at 11:45:37 AM permalink
Doesn't the standard deviation change with the number of trials: ((np(1-p))^.5
----- You want the truth! You can't handle the truth!
7craps
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August 8th, 2013 at 11:54:51 AM permalink
Quote: CrystalMath

I concur. I believe that there is a 4.3025% chance of ruin with a 9 unit bankroll.

Does not sound right.
Just using the Gambler's Ruin Formula
9 unit bankroll
.6 = success

to
double a
$9 bankroll
97.46471899%
ruin = 2.53528101%

hit 50 units
97.3987705%
ruin: 2.6012295%

simulation to hit 1,000 units before ruin
97.46%
ruin: 2.54%
close to the 2.3517746 % value returned by the RoR formula
winsome johnny (not Win some johnny)
CrystalMath
CrystalMath
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August 8th, 2013 at 12:25:20 PM permalink
Quote: 7craps

Does not sound right.
Just using the Gambler's Ruin Formula
9 unit bankroll
.6 = success

to
double a
$9 bankroll
97.46471899%
ruin = 2.53528101%

hit 50 units
97.3987705%
ruin: 2.6012295%

simulation to hit 1,000 units before ruin
97.46%
ruin: 2.54%
close to the 2.3517746 % value returned by the RoR formula



Yep, I had a mistake. There is a 2.6012% chance of ruin with a 9 unit bankroll (I match exactly your number for hitting 50 units).
I heart Crystal Math.
jc2286
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August 8th, 2013 at 12:32:52 PM permalink
Quote: boymimbo

Doesn't the standard deviation change with the number of trials: ((np(1-p))^.5



Yes, but then your WinRate changes too. If you wanted to look at it over, say 4 trials, your SD increases by a factor of 2, but your WR increases by a factor of 4.

In the RoR formula, there is a WR/SD^2 component. So the same ratio is maintained.
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