changing craps odds by changing your investment

The bets in craps (as in every game) come with certain vigs. If I'm not mistaken, these vigs are calculated using the total investment, the payout odds, and the total possible outcomes. My question is a little out there, but if you could alter the amount of your investment, while retaining the same bet amount, would this change the vig? For example, suppose you covered all of the points with minimum Place bets. At a $10 table, this would require an investment of $10 + $10 + $12 + $12 + $10 + $10, totaling $64. These bets have specific percentages against them. However, suppose you could lower your investment, while retaining the same bet amounts. Instead of $64 coming out of your wallet, say you found $20 on the floor and used it to lower your total investment to $44. How would this effect the percentage against your personal bankroll? Would it just be proportional? The vig decreases directly as your investment does?

Anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks!

Nick

Quote: nickdel

The bets in craps (as in every game) come with certain vigs. If I'm not mistaken, these vigs are calculated using the total investment, the payout odds, and the total possible outcomes. My question is a little out there, but if you could alter the amount of your investment, while retaining the same bet amount, would this change the vig? For example, suppose you covered all of the points with minimum Place bets. At a $10 table, this would require an investment of $10 + $10 + $12 + $12 + $10 + $10, totaling $64. These bets have specific percentages against them. However, suppose you could lower your investment, while retaining the same bet amounts. Instead of $64 coming out of your wallet, say you found $20 on the floor and used it to lower your total investment to $44. How would this effect the percentage against your personal bankroll? Would it just be proportional? The vig decreases directly as your investment does?

Anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks!

Nick

Dan says it better have not come from a casino floor.

I suppose it depends on how/when you assign the house edge to that $20. It's $20 when it's in your hand, but it's effectively $19.XX when it's on the craps table awaiting your bet's resolution. If you choose to consider it to be $20 while it's in play, then your other $44 in bets would need to be assigned the full $64 worth of expected loss.

Do you need my mailing address to return the $20 ?

Ok, that's interesting, philosophically. What money is actually your money, and when is that money become yours?

I suppose what I meant was that a portion of those bets comes from somewhere that isn't your wallet. For example, if you and a buddy split the cost of the bet, then his wife called and made him go home so you got to keep all the winnings, then the vig against your portion, while the same percentage, would actually be a smaller dollar amount, right? Because what you added to the bet is less than the total investment, but your winnings are based on the entire bet.

I think I might be stating something more obvious than most people reading this might otherwise assume. What I'm getting at is, if you were given the winning benefit of a bet of x dollars, but were required to invest less than x dollars, then the actual vig you pay, in dollars, would be less than if you had made the entire bet. Right? So, suppose you Placed $64 across the points, but only threw the dealer $44, and Buzzard's Casino Hotel And Haberdashery covered the rest (just go with me here :-), then your portion of the vig, in dollars, would be a certain fraction of that $44, rather than the full $64, because the other portion of the vig would be paid by BCH&H since they put up part of the bet. Is this so?

Thanks.

Nick