February 10th, 2010 at 3:53:14 AM
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Dealer must have an ace and a king or higher to "play"
Question, what is the percentage that a dealer is forced to play, assuming that the player will play blindly and raise on all occasions?
=)
February 18th, 2010 at 7:28:18 AM
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I don't have the exact answer, however, it is a little less than 50%. This is becuse the Player hand is observed first, and there are 10 cards taken from the deck in the heads-up play you describe. This is rather complex, but it boils down to the composition of the Player's hand. Since the Player might have an Ace or King or both, or a poker hand containing either, the Dealer has less of a chance to also have the needed Ace-King or better. In 5-card Poker, without this heads-up scenario, the chances of drawing a pair or better is just under 50% in "one" hand. With two contestants, one must take into account contestant #1's hand... it might have an Ace or King in it. That being said, I have figured it to be around 47% that the dealer will play.
To err is human.
To air is Jordan.
To arrr is pirate.
February 18th, 2010 at 8:45:08 AM
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NandB, I have no idea what you are talking about. I think you are way off base.
Anyway, the answer to the question is the dealer qualifies 56.32% of the time. This question has already been answered here https://wizardofodds.com/askthewizard/caribbeanstud.html (near bottom of page).
Anyway, the answer to the question is the dealer qualifies 56.32% of the time. This question has already been answered here https://wizardofodds.com/askthewizard/caribbeanstud.html (near bottom of page).