https://wizardofodds.com/games/video-poker/strategy/jacks-or-better/9-6/simple/
Quote:
(...)
4. 4 to a straight flush
5. Two pair
(...)
https://wizardofodds.com/games/video-poker/strategy/jacks-or-better/8-6/
Quote:
(...)
6. Two pair
7. 4 to a straight flush
(...)
If the only difference between the 2 pay tables is that Full house pays LESS on the 8/6 version, why does the 8/6 strategy differ in a way that seems to FAVOR hitting more full houses over straight/flushes?
Drawing to two pair:
4 cards make the full house
The other 43 keep it at two pair
With 9/6, this is 4 x 9 + 43 x 2 = 122
With 8/6, this is 4 x 8 + 43 x 2 = 118
Assuming the SF is open-ended and has no high cards (e.g. 2,3,4,5 of spades), and the fifth card does not make a straight or flush:
2 make the SF (Ace and 6 of spades)
7 make the flush (7-K of spades)
6 make a non-SF straight (Ace or 6 of hearts, diamonds, or clubs)
The other 32 are a losing hand
This is 2 x 25 + 7 x 6 + 6 x 4 = 116
If it has a high card (i.e. 8,9,10,J), then there are 3 cards that make Jacks or Better, so the total is 119; the 4/SF is a better play (122 to 119) with 9/6, but the two pair is a better play (119 to 118) with 8/6
The chart you show just shows which hand has more value but it doesn’t change your strategy because you can’t have a 4sf draw and two pair in the same handQuote: MukkeI was looking at the different strategies between full pay and 8/6 jacks or better and came accros something that seems highly unintuitive.
https://wizardofodds.com/games/video-poker/strategy/jacks-or-better/9-6/simple/Quote:
(...)
4. 4 to a straight flush
5. Two pair
(...)
https://wizardofodds.com/games/video-poker/strategy/jacks-or-better/8-6/Quote:
(...)
6. Two pair
7. 4 to a straight flush
(...)
If the only difference between the 2 pay tables is that Full house pays LESS on the 8/6 version, why does the 8/6 strategy differ in a way that seems to FAVOR hitting more full houses over straight/flushes?
link to original post
Quote: ThatDonGuyLet's look at the possibilities
Drawing to two pair:
4 cards make the full house
The other 43 keep it at two pair
With 9/6, this is 4 x 9 + 43 x 2 = 122
With 8/6, this is 4 x 8 + 43 x 2 = 118
Assuming the SF is open-ended and has no high cards (e.g. 2,3,4,5 of spades), and the fifth card does not make a straight or flush:
2 make the SF (Ace and 6 of spades)
7 make the flush (7-K of spades)
6 make a non-SF straight (Ace or 6 of hearts, diamonds, or clubs)
The other 32 are a losing hand
This is 2 x 25 + 7 x 6 + 6 x 4 = 116
If it has a high card (i.e. 8,9,10,J), then there are 3 cards that make Jacks or Better, so the total is 119; the 4/SF is a better play (122 to 119) with 9/6, but the two pair is a better play (119 to 118) with 8/6
link to original post
Ypur statement "If it has a high card (i.e. 8,9,10,J), then there are 3 cards that make Jacks or Better, so the total is 119; the 4/SF is a better play (122 to 119) with 9/6, but the two pair is a better play (119 to 118) with 8/6" doesn't seem to make sense.
Example: The 4/SF is a 119 or 116 with 9/6, the two pair is 122 so how can you say that "the 4/SF is a better play (122 to 119) with 9/6"?
Quote: gordonm888
Ypur statement "If it has a high card (i.e. 8,9,10,J), then there are 3 cards that make Jacks or Better, so the total is 119; the 4/SF is a better play (122 to 119) with 9/6, but the two pair is a better play (119 to 118) with 8/6" doesn't seem to make sense.
link to original post
It doesn't make sense; in fact, it's backwards - 2 Pair is the better play with 9/6, and 4/SF is better with 8/6

