November 11th, 2016 at 8:57:37 PM
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Hi all,
While thinking about blackjack for a while (and while walking down the aisle of the casino floor), I found a terrific 3-play 9/6 Jacks or Better setup. And instead of my current, super-high-variance option, I chose to play at these machines. A question if I may.
At least two (WoO and jazbo) sites mention the following formula for the variance of a multiplay:
variance = vardeal + N * vardraw
That's 17.5 + 2N for the arrangement above. Does this mean that playing three hands is like playing three single hands of some hypothetical game with a variance of 17.5 + 6 = 23.5? Thanks!
While thinking about blackjack for a while (and while walking down the aisle of the casino floor), I found a terrific 3-play 9/6 Jacks or Better setup. And instead of my current, super-high-variance option, I chose to play at these machines. A question if I may.
At least two (WoO and jazbo) sites mention the following formula for the variance of a multiplay:
variance = vardeal + N * vardraw
That's 17.5 + 2N for the arrangement above. Does this mean that playing three hands is like playing three single hands of some hypothetical game with a variance of 17.5 + 6 = 23.5? Thanks!