bigpete88
bigpete88
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Joined: Mar 8, 2011
August 4th, 2012 at 11:17:13 AM permalink
Here is a stat question for you. Let's say that you have EXACTLY a two-percent edge (as written in sports betting there is NO WAY to calculate one's EXACT edge/disadvantage) on 2,500 straight bets. What is your probability of 'being ahead' (I am assuming that all 2,500 bets are for the same amount of money) after this 2,500 bet run?

Thanks again!!!!
thecesspit
thecesspit
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August 4th, 2012 at 11:21:05 AM permalink
Evens payouts or -110 (10/11) bets?
"Then you can admire the real gambler, who has neither eaten, slept, thought nor lived, he has so smarted under the scourge of his martingale, so suffered on the rack of his desire for a coup at trente-et-quarante" - Honore de Balzac, 1829
bigpete88
bigpete88
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August 4th, 2012 at 11:25:49 AM permalink
-110 to win 100

Thanks
mustangsally
mustangsally
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August 4th, 2012 at 11:40:05 AM permalink
This is a binomial distribution probability question.
removed
silly

Sally
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bigpete88
bigpete88
  • Threads: 23
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Joined: Mar 8, 2011
August 4th, 2012 at 2:14:43 PM permalink
Thanks Mustang Sally!!

Also, the guys in my group really liked the chart I added regarding reduced juice on another thread that you provided so thank you for that as well.
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