where do you think the term "set"

came from.....Some of you might have heard my bad beat story from last night. I was playing some no limit last night at my local casino. And a group of us got into a discussion about where the term "set" came from when referring to 3 of a kind, ie. "I flopped a set". Some old guy at the table was saying it can only be called a "set" if you flop a set and have a pocket pair in your hand. So he was saying it is incorrect to say "I turned a set or rivered a set" Which I called BS on. He was saying the term came from, when you flop a set then you are now "set" to win the hand. I think this is incorrect.

I have always just assumed it came from Gin Rummy. As a lot of high stacks poker players were high stakes Gin players back in the day. Stu Unger for example. And in Gin 3 of a kind is called a "set" and 4 of a kind is called a "group". Maybe I have always been assuming wrong and it comes from somewhere else.

What do you guys think?

2 in your hand and 1 on the board is a set. 1 in your hand and 2 on the board is trips. Only difference being to distinguish the two hands in the retelling the hand to other people later so they can visualize what happened.

Quote: zippyboy

2 in your hand and 1 on the board is a set. 1 in your hand and 2 on the board is trips. Only difference being to distinguish the two hands in the retelling the hand to other people later so they can visualize what happened.

Ya im not talking about that. I was saying where did the term "set" come from. obviously if I have A,10 in my hand and the flop came A,A,5 I would not say "I flopped a set of Aces".

I think he is saying the old guy said it is only a set on the flop, if it is made on the turn or river it is not referred to as such. I've never heard that though.

Did you ever ask the girl with 10/10 what hand she put AA on with her $40 Call ??

Quote: buzzpaff

Did you ever ask the girl with 10/10 what hand she put AA on with her $40 Call ??

No lol, she left like 2 hands later. I think she thought as I would have, that with a raise in front of her, then a re raise behind her, THEN a Cap raise in front of her again, she was assuming her 10's were behind LOL, I would say neither player that night (pocket A's and 6's) where playing loose that night.

EDIT: misread what you were say about her original $40 call. I would assuming she was hoping for a lower pocket pair or AK or AQ so at least she would be in a race.

Quote: vert1276

No lol, she left like 2 hands later. I think she thought as I would have, that with a raise in front of her, then a re raise behind her, THEN a Cap raise in front of her again, she was assuming her 10's were behind LOL, I would say neither player that night (pocket A's and 6's) where playing loose that night.

EDIT: misread what you were say about her original $40 call. I would assuming she was hoping for a lower pocket pair or AK or AQ so at least she would be in a race.

But when she called the $40, only the 2 blinds were left, so she was odds-on to be heads-up with the preflop raiser. And even if he was loose, that just makes it worse. How big would her 10's have looked when he bet out after the average flop. So it was either
fold or raise. Looking into another $90 if she made it $100 to go, the 66 might have folded. Looks like he thought the pre-flop raiser was AK or AQ. So she is mad at him because she played her hand wrong and he put AA on same hand she did and figured she would fold and leave her $40 in the pot. LOL

Quote: clarkacal

I think he is saying the old guy said it is only a set on the flop, if it is made on the turn or river it is not referred to as such. I've never heard that though.

I believe that is the strict definition.