December 18th, 2017 at 5:32:42 PM
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I read this post on another website and the poster claims Aruze E-Craps house edge is not the same as what Wizard of Odds posted.
Can anyone confirm this? Thanks.
http://www.crapsforum.com/threads/why-live-craps-player-struggle-on-aruze-bubble-craps.30185/
[EDIT] I am having trouble posting the link -- crapsforum(dot)com is the website and the rest of the address is /threads/why-live-craps-player-struggle-on-aruze-bubble-craps.30185/
I am curious why the same bet would have two different house edge. Thanks.
Can anyone confirm this? Thanks.
http://www.crapsforum.com/threads/why-live-craps-player-struggle-on-aruze-bubble-craps.30185/
[EDIT] I am having trouble posting the link -- crapsforum(dot)com is the website and the rest of the address is /threads/why-live-craps-player-struggle-on-aruze-bubble-craps.30185/
I am curious why the same bet would have two different house edge. Thanks.
December 18th, 2017 at 6:54:01 PM
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I have never played an Aruze, so I don't know if the statement is true, but if it is, the reason it would have two different house edges is, it has two different sets of odds.
For those of you who don't want to bother with the other thread, here is the basics as I understand them:
The bet appears to be a lay (or whatever "buy to lose" is called) of the 4 or 10.
Normally, it pays 1-2 minus 5%, so if you bet 2, it will pay 0.95.
Aruze lets you bet 1, so it "should" pay 0.475, but it is rounded up to 0.48. In effect, with a $1 bet, the commission on win is 4%, not 5%.
For those of you who don't want to bother with the other thread, here is the basics as I understand them:
The bet appears to be a lay (or whatever "buy to lose" is called) of the 4 or 10.
Normally, it pays 1-2 minus 5%, so if you bet 2, it will pay 0.95.
Aruze lets you bet 1, so it "should" pay 0.475, but it is rounded up to 0.48. In effect, with a $1 bet, the commission on win is 4%, not 5%.
December 18th, 2017 at 7:29:17 PM
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The poster calculated the house edge on E-Craps two ways:
a) with the rounding, which is -0.12 on $9, and
b) without the rounding (see postscript in that post) and house edge is -0.15 on $9
Neither house edge calcutions matched the Wizard of Odd's 2.439%
-0.12 / 9 is 1.33% house edge, and
-0.15 / 9 is 1.66% house edge.
I admit that I am stumped.
a) with the rounding, which is -0.12 on $9, and
b) without the rounding (see postscript in that post) and house edge is -0.15 on $9
Neither house edge calcutions matched the Wizard of Odd's 2.439%
-0.12 / 9 is 1.33% house edge, and
-0.15 / 9 is 1.66% house edge.
I admit that I am stumped.
December 18th, 2017 at 7:58:06 PM
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Quote: CAD2The poster calculated the house edge on E-Craps two ways:
a) with the rounding, which is -0.12 on $9, and
b) without the rounding (see postscript in that post) and house edge is -0.15 on $9
Neither house edge calcutions matched the Wizard of Odd's 2.439%
-0.12 / 9 is 1.33% house edge, and
-0.15 / 9 is 1.66% house edge.
I admit that I am stumped.
The Wizard has 1.67% for only commission on win which is correct. The 2.439% is always paying commission.
“Man Babes” #AxelFabulous
December 18th, 2017 at 9:59:54 PM
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Thank you -- that helps.
Okay, now I understand what the poster meant by "basis effect" -- the house edge is calculated over two different basis. I was stumped over same win amount that led to different house edge amounts.
Let's define house edge by [ Theo (in $) / Capital Committed (in $) ]
In the E-Craps case, I make a $40 wager laying the 10.
I win $19 in six cases for $114 in total wins.
I lose $40 in three cases for $120 total losses.
My net loss is $6 (or Theo in $)
I made 9 bets at $40 for $360 (or Capital committed in $)
The house advantage is $6 loss over $360 or 1.67%
At a table, for the same $40 wager, I have to add $1 as commission.
I win the same $114 over 6 bets.
I lose $41 (due to commission) over 3 bets for $123 in total losses.
However, I committed $369 in capital because of the marginal dollar over 9 bets, respectively.
So $114 in wins net against $123 in losses is a net loss of $9
$9 loss over $369 is a house edge of 2.439%
The poster was correct: The table game sucks since you have to commit more capital to win the same amount. It's the combination of more capital committed along with $3 more in losses that makes the difference.
Okay, now I understand what the poster meant by "basis effect" -- the house edge is calculated over two different basis. I was stumped over same win amount that led to different house edge amounts.
Let's define house edge by [ Theo (in $) / Capital Committed (in $) ]
In the E-Craps case, I make a $40 wager laying the 10.
I win $19 in six cases for $114 in total wins.
I lose $40 in three cases for $120 total losses.
My net loss is $6 (or Theo in $)
I made 9 bets at $40 for $360 (or Capital committed in $)
The house advantage is $6 loss over $360 or 1.67%
At a table, for the same $40 wager, I have to add $1 as commission.
I win the same $114 over 6 bets.
I lose $41 (due to commission) over 3 bets for $123 in total losses.
However, I committed $369 in capital because of the marginal dollar over 9 bets, respectively.
So $114 in wins net against $123 in losses is a net loss of $9
$9 loss over $369 is a house edge of 2.439%
The poster was correct: The table game sucks since you have to commit more capital to win the same amount. It's the combination of more capital committed along with $3 more in losses that makes the difference.