September 4th, 2016 at 9:37:30 PM
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Suppose there was a 21 game in progress involving just the dealer and one player: Assume on a round of play that the dealer does not have a blackjack and the player has a 2-card 20. What percentage of the time will the dealer reach 21 and beat the player? Obviously all the hands where the dealer starts with a 2-card hard 17 through 20 would not beat the player--it would have to be a hand where the dealer has to draw. Let's assume a H17, DD game.
Would it be close to 7.6% of the time? Could anyone help me with this question?
Would it be close to 7.6% of the time? Could anyone help me with this question?
September 4th, 2016 at 10:58:47 PM
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This might help: Blackjack appendix 2a, Probabilities of dealer hand after peek. See: https://wizardofodds.com/games/blackjack/appendix/2a/.
Beware of all enterprises that require new clothes - Henry David Thoreau. Like Dealers' uniforms - Dan.
September 4th, 2016 at 11:42:49 PM
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Fixed: https://wizardofodds.com/games/blackjack/appendix/2a/
Looks to be 7.892% frequency. Although that doesn't take into account the missing TT or A9 (player's 2-card 20).
Looks to be 7.892% frequency. Although that doesn't take into account the missing TT or A9 (player's 2-card 20).
September 5th, 2016 at 3:27:48 AM
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Thanks for the help Dan and RS.