Greasyjohn
Greasyjohn
Joined: Dec 8, 2013
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September 4th, 2016 at 9:37:30 PM permalink
Suppose there was a 21 game in progress involving just the dealer and one player: Assume on a round of play that the dealer does not have a blackjack and the player has a 2-card 20. What percentage of the time will the dealer reach 21 and beat the player? Obviously all the hands where the dealer starts with a 2-card hard 17 through 20 would not beat the player--it would have to be a hand where the dealer has to draw. Let's assume a H17, DD game.

Would it be close to 7.6% of the time? Could anyone help me with this question?
Paigowdan
Paigowdan
Joined: Apr 28, 2010
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September 4th, 2016 at 10:58:47 PM permalink
This might help: Blackjack appendix 2a, Probabilities of dealer hand after peek. See: http://wizardofodds.com/games/blackjack/appendix/2a/.
Beware of all enterprises that require new clothes - Henry David Thoreau. Like Dealers' uniforms - Dan.
RS
RS
Joined: Feb 11, 2014
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September 4th, 2016 at 11:42:49 PM permalink
Fixed: http://wizardofodds.com/games/blackjack/appendix/2a/

Looks to be 7.892% frequency. Although that doesn't take into account the missing TT or A9 (player's 2-card 20).
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Greasyjohn
Greasyjohn
Joined: Dec 8, 2013
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September 5th, 2016 at 3:27:48 AM permalink
Thanks for the help Dan and RS.

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