Sanz
Sanz
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November 20th, 2011 at 8:01:19 AM permalink
Suppose person A can roll a dice several times and pick the highest number rolled. Person B can also roll a dice several times and pick the highest number. What is the probability that person A will roll a number higher than (but NOT equal to) person B?
odiousgambit
odiousgambit
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November 20th, 2011 at 8:14:50 AM permalink
I think it is not too picky to point out that you can roll 2 or more dice, but if rolling one, it is a die. I'm getting picky because you are hard to understand in general. What do you mean by "pick the highest number?"
the next time Dame Fortune toys with your heart, your soul and your wallet, raise your glass and praise her thus: “Thanks for nothing, you cold-hearted, evil, damnable, nefarious, low-life, malicious monster from Hell!”   She is, after all, stone deaf. ... Arnold Snyder
kaysirtap
kaysirtap
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November 20th, 2011 at 8:22:37 AM permalink
Quote: Sanz

Suppose person A can roll a dice several times and pick the highest number rolled. Person B can also roll a dice several times and pick the highest number. What is the probability that person A will roll a number higher than (but NOT equal to) person B?

Are you hoping that you will find an answer for your math homework here? Also, you'd have to clarify how many "dice" you are referring to.
MathExtremist
MathExtremist
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November 20th, 2011 at 8:32:57 AM permalink
And how many sides each has, and how many rolls you're doing. The probability approaches zero as rolls increases.
"In my own case, when it seemed to me after a long illness that death was close at hand, I found no little solace in playing constantly at dice." -- Girolamo Cardano, 1563
dm
dm
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November 20th, 2011 at 8:40:10 AM permalink
Quote: kaysirtap

Are you hoping that you will find an answer for your math homework here? Also, you'd have to clarify how many "dice" you are referring to.



Give him a break. I've seen worse questions by the hundreds on here. It's still a good question for some of the smart guys who might even state a formula. I assume he means 1 die, but obviously the higher "higher" is the lower the probability that either one would win. Is that even true, and prove your work?.
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