1. There is a 1 km rubber band.
2. An ant starts at one end.
3. The ant moves towards the other end at a speed of 1 cm./sec..
4. The rubber band stretches at a rate of 1 km./sec..
How long does it take for the ant to reach the other end?
Here is about as far I get with this, which admittedly isn't much.
Let the ant's position at the beginning be 0 at time 0, with one end of the rubber band fixed to that point.
Let f(t) be the ant's distance from the starting point at time t.
f'(t) is the ant's speed at time t.
The speed is 1 + 100,000*ratio of progress (where the ratio of progress is how much of the rubber band the ant has crossed).
So, I think, we've got f'(t) = 1 + 100000*f(t)/(100000*(1+t))
My calculus skills are just too rusty to get past this point, not that they were ever outstanding to begin with. If I could solve for f(t) then I think I could get the rest of the way easily by finding the point at which the ant's position is equal to the end point (100000*(1+t)).
This is where I need to use my phone a friend. Can anybody get me further along the rubber band of this problem? ME? DG? Doc?
Quote: 7outlineawayCan it be proven he even gets to the other end? More specifically, does he ever reach a point where the end is receding from him more slowly than 1 cm/sec? Can you solve for this point?
Yes, the ant will reach the end, after a very long time. As a ratio of the rubber band traveled, the ant makes progress with every step.
That makes for a good side question about when the distance to the end starts to decrease with time. I would imagine it isn't until somewhere in the last minute or so.
Quote: WizardYes, the ant will reach the end, after a very long time. As a ratio of the rubber band traveled, the ant makes progress with every step. This ratio keeps increasing too, so eventually it must get to 1.
That makes for a good side question about when the distance to the end starts to decrease with time. I would imagine it isn't until somewhere in the last minute or so.
Isn't this just an infinite series that sums to 1?
Starting from your equation, I simplify it and get:
I believe the solution to this differential equation is:
Then, considering the point when the ant reaches the end point, we can solve for the time required in seconds:
Even if this answer is correct, my calculator will not display the answer.
If infinite, I don't think the ant makes up the difference. Every 100,000 seconds, the ant will cover 1 km. But in that time, the other end of the rubberband will be another 99,999 km ahead of him. This growth is constant and infinite, so the ant will never catch up. What am I missing?
Why not solve for smaller numbers first?
It takes him a long, long time to get there, though.
An yes, the assumption is that there is infinite stretch available but that neither the weight of the rubber band nor the weight of the ant cause it to sag.
So let's put it into perspective that most people can wrap their heads around.
Assume that instead of an ant, that it's a car, and the rubberband isn't stretching so fast.
The actual units don't matter, although metrics, being multiples of 10, make things easier to grasp with the original problem.
For now assume that the starting length of the rubberband is also how much it stretches in the alloted time, and also assume that the car travels that same distance in the same time.
At the end of that first time unit, is the car in the middle? No. It's further along than that. If the rubber band stretches in spurts, i.e. it instantly stretches, then stops during the time unit, then the car would travel half-way. But since it's stretching at the same time that the car is moving, the car gets a boost as a result.
People can easily accept that.
But then tell them the car is only going half as fast, and suddenly people argue that the car can never catch up.
Quote: thecesspitAs the band stretches, the ant is moved along it as well... e.g it stays the same percentage on the band.
Why not solve for smaller numbers first?
I like this observation.
Let's solve based on percentage of the band instead of absolute distance.
At any point in time, the rate of travel of the ant, in terms of percentage, is:
1 cm/sec / (1+t) km = 0.00001 /(1+t)
Now I think we just need to integrate this from time 0 to T, and solve for T when the integral = 1.0 (i.e. 100%)
This is now a fairly straightforward integral calculation, and no longer a differential equation.
Edit: this leads to the same answer that Doc got.
Quote: DocPapaChubby, I didn't follow your strategy. Could you describe it again, or more fully? Perhaps I would follow if you did the integration to show your solution. Thanks.
Wow, good stuff here! Thank you Doc and Papa. I've been working through both solutions on paper and am happy as a claim to have seen the light.
Papa's solution took me a while to wrap my head around, but once you accept his premise, the math is very easy. Let me see if I can explain it.
Let r(t) = Ratio of the rubber band the ant is covering at time t.
At time t the rubber band is 100,000*(1+t) cm. long.
The ant's speed is 1, not considering the expansion of the rubber band.
Think of yourself as the ant moving just 1 cm./sec. and both ends of the rubber band moving away from the ant (except for the starting and ending times). In other words, the rubber band ends are moving relative to the ant, not the other way around. So if you base everything on the ant's progress by his own legs the ratio of the rubber band he covers at time t is 1/(100,000*(1+t)). This took me a while to accept, but think I have. I don't know if I explained it well.
Let T be the time at which the ant has covered 100% of the rubber band.
Integral from 0 to T of r(t) = 1
Integral from 0 to T of 1/(100,000*(1+t)) = 1
10^5*ln(t+t) from 0 to T = 1
ln(1+T) = 10^5
1+T = e^100000
T = e^100000 -1
In the first second, the ant leaves behind 1/200000 part of the band, in the second second it is 1/300000, etc ...
The total part of the band left behind by Nth second is 1/100000 * (1/2 + 1/3 + ... 1/N+1). The end is reached when this exceeds 1.
The harmonic series in parenthesis converge to ln(N+1) with very good accuracy (the fixed deficit, known as Euler–Mascheroni constant is about 0.6).
So, solving ln(N+1) = 100000 for N gives an exacts (fro all practical purposes) answer: N = e^100000 - 1.
I am pretty sure this has been discussed before here, but can't find the thread ...
Quote: Docweaselman, I understand that you had calculus by the 10th grade (which I did not), but I don't see how you solved the problem without calculus. How did you determine that the series converged to ln(N+1) without calculus? Without calculus, how does one even understand the significance of natural logarithms?
Yeah, I guess, you need *some* calculus after all :) What I meant to say was that you don't need differential equations. Like I said, we did know derivatives and integrals by then. (My 10th grade was in a different country. Age-wise, it is, I think, equivalent to 11th grade in the US, but math curriculum is more extensive over there).
Quote: WizardWow, good stuff here! Thank you Doc and Papa. I've been working through both solutions on paper and am happy as a claim to have seen the light.
Papa's solution took me a while to wrap my head around, but once you accept his premise, the math is very easy. Let me see if I can explain it.
I got the idea while trying to convince myself that there actually was a finite solution. If the end of the rubber band is moving away at 1 km/sec, and the ant is only moving at 1 cm/sec, how will he ever reach the end?
Well consider the possibility that the ant somehow makes it 25% of the way down the band, then stops. Despite the speed of expansion of the band, the ant will remain at the 25% point. He's not losing anything in terms of the proportion of the band that he's covered. And when he takes his next step, the proportion will be 25% + delta. Every step moves him closer to 100%. So now the problem is just to figure out what delta is as a function of time, and integrate it up until you get to 100%.
Delta is just the size of his step (1 cm/sec) divided by the current length of the band (1+t km).
BTW, it's the same thing as Weaselman's answer.
Yep, there are probably a variety of ways to analyze this problem. Since the Wizard had already structured it as a differential equation in the original post, that was the approach I tried to solve. My brain is exercised and well-conditioned even less than my flabby bod, so coming up with the DiffEq solution was all it could handle -- I certainly wasn't up to devising alternate approaches. After all this strenuous mental activity, I think I'll take a nap.Quote: weaselmanWhat I meant to say was that you don't need differential equations.
Quote: weaselmanYou don't need calculus to solve this.
I would say you were using calculus, just not calling it that.
Thanks again Doc and PC. I just posted this on my mathproblems.info site. I'll also make an "Ask the Wizard" question out of it, although in this case it was more like "answer the wizard."
Quote: Wizard
Integral from 0 to T of r(t) = 1
Integral from 0 to T of 1/(100,000*(1+t)) = 1
10^5*ln(t+t) from 0 to T = 1
ln(1+T) = 10^5
1+T = e^100000
T = e^100000 -1
Can this answer be generalized to t = e^y - x, for an ant that moves x cm/sec on a band that moves y cm/sec?
Quote: 7outlineawayCan this answer be generalized to t = e^y - x, for an ant that moves x cm/sec on a band that moves y cm/sec?
No. Here is the general formula.
a = ant's speed
i = initial length of rubber band
r = rubber band's expansion speed
Then the ant will reach the other side in i × (e^(r/a)-1)/r units of time.
I just got around to looking at the math problems site. In your solution #1, as well as in the original post of this thread, you referred to this problem as involving partial differential equations. It does not. This problem is in the class of ordinary, linear, differential equations with variable coefficients. The "ordinary" and "linear" characteristics are things we lazy, slow folks hope for. The "variable coefficients" aspect makes it a little more difficult (perhaps very difficult for an atrophied brain like mine), but it is not nearly so difficult as the general category of partial differential equations.Quote: WizardI just posted this on my mathproblems.info site.
In case it is not completely clear, this is an ordinary differential equation because there is only one independent variable: time. The ant's position and the length of the rubber band are dependent variables.
In contrast, suppose we structured the problem so that the 1 km/s rate of stretch was also an independent variable (varying but not a function of time). Similarly, the ant's walking speed could be an independent variable. In those cases, we would likely be dealing with partial differential equations. Please don't ask me for help with that one. We'd both be in serious trouble.
Quote: DocIn case it is not completely clear, this is an ordinary differential equation because there is only one independent variable: time. The ant's position and the length of the rubber band are dependent variables.
In contrast, suppose we structured the problem so that the 1 km/s rate of stretch was also an independent variable (varying but not a function of time). Similarly, the ant's walking speed could be an independent variable. In those cases, we would likely be dealing with partial differential equations. Please don't ask me for help with that one. We'd both be in serious trouble.
Thank you. Good catch. Not only is my calculus rusty, but my terminology too.
Quote: WizardofEnglandCan someone confirm that my maths might be correct, in that if the rubber band was 10cm that it would take the ant 12368 seconds, or about 3 hours 26 minutes
No. If the only thing you change is the initial length of the rubber band (i.e. expansion rate remains 1 km/sec), the answer still include e^100,000, which is an enormous number. Changing the initial length only modifies the result by a factor of 10,000, which is pretty insignificant in this case.