scudder
• Posts: 23
Joined: Aug 30, 2010
September 2nd, 2010 at 2:59:04 AM permalink
Just a quick clarification needed: on the Texas Hold'Em page over at Wizard of Odds there's a chart that shows probability of making a given hand and the pot odds needed to justify a call. Taking "four to a flush" numbers off the "After the Flop" table it shows 34.97% of making the hand, which I understand, but then it shows a pot odds ratio of 1.86:1 to justify the call. How does one come about this value? I can't make it make sense in my head.
PapaChubby
• Posts: 495
Joined: Mar 29, 2010
September 2nd, 2010 at 4:41:26 AM permalink
(1-x)/x.

If you have a 50% chance of making the winning hand, you call with 1:1 odds (call any bet)

If you only have a 10% chance of making the winning hand, you need 9:1 pot odds to justify a call.

Because there is more betting yet to come, implied odds are more important than true pot odds.
scudder
• Posts: 23
Joined: Aug 30, 2010
September 2nd, 2010 at 7:49:29 AM permalink
Quote: PapaChubby

(1-x)/x.

If you have a 50% chance of making the winning hand, you call with 1:1 odds (call any bet)

If you only have a 10% chance of making the winning hand, you need 9:1 pot odds to justify a call.

Because there is more betting yet to come, implied odds are more important than true pot odds.

oooookkkkk...I think I see where I was going wrong. I was thinking in terms of horse racing odds, 1.86 TO 1, putting in 1 and getting 1.86 back, for a net profit of .86, when really it's 1.86 FOR 1, with 1.86 already in the pot, you make the call for 1, and win the 1.86 pot plus your 1 back. At least I think that's where my logic went wrong. The math, of course, makes perfect sense.