zazou
zazou
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January 8th, 2013 at 11:53:42 PM permalink
I have been playing a lot of Video poker 4 handed tens or better online and I wanted to know what are the chances to have these kinds of results:

In my last 10 sessions I have lost $1700 while wagering 33k

My life time results at that casino is -$4400, total wagered is 131k

Total betsize is 2$ (0.5$ per hand x 4 hands) full paytable
MangoJ
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January 9th, 2013 at 9:30:53 AM permalink
The average hit rate of a royal flush in video poker is about 40k hands, right ? Unless you have at least 200k hands, all numbers given are not worth discussing.
tringlomane
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January 9th, 2013 at 9:54:11 AM permalink
Quote: MangoJ

The average hit rate of a royal flush in video poker is about 40k hands, right ? Unless you have at least 200k hands, all numbers given are not worth discussing.



His total numbers indicate 262k hands, but it's 4-play though.
Canyonero
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January 9th, 2013 at 10:23:06 AM permalink
Posting the return table would help.

Your current return percentage ist 96.6%, which would be nothing out of the ordinary for the typical 97.96% return table.

I estimate the standard deviation for 262k hands to be about $2500 (to be exact the return table would be needed, plus a lot of messy math for the 4 play) [Homer: hmmm, messy foreplay]

Your expected loss would be $2670, i.e. you are running about $1800 below expectation (assuming 97.96 return table). This is well within one SD and thus "completely normal". The probability of running this bad or worse after 262k hands is 23%.

If another return table, I will redo math...
tringlomane
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January 9th, 2013 at 10:26:51 AM permalink
OP said "full pay" which I assume pays 25/6/5 quads/boat/flush and returns 99.14%. Online casinos offer 99% video poker frequently.
Canyonero
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January 9th, 2013 at 11:08:53 AM permalink
Quote: tringlomane

OP said "full pay" which I assume pays 25/6/5 quads/boat/flush and returns 99.14%. Online casinos offer 99% video poker frequently.



oops, missed that. I might be an interesting comparison at least:

I am sticking with my 2500 SD estimate, the ballpark doesn't change much with the 5 extra coins on the quads.

However, the expected loss is now only $1100, so you are running $3300 below expectation. This is more than 1 SD down from expectation, your are running below average. The probability of running this bad or worse is 9.3%. (Statistically speaking, this is still nothing out of the ordinary, it is gonna happen to one in ten guys playing.)
tringlomane
tringlomane
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January 9th, 2013 at 11:13:37 AM permalink
Quote: Canyonero

oops, missed that. I might be an interesting comparison at least:

I am sticking with my 2500 SD estimate, the ballpark doesn't change much with the 5 extra coins on the quads.

However, the expected loss is now only $1100, so you are running $3300 below expectation. This is more than 1 SD down from expectation, your are running below average. The probability of running this bad or worse is 9.3%. (Statistically speaking, this is still nothing out of the ordinary, it is gonna happen to one in ten guys playing.)



The fact that he is playing 4-play, the odds of him being down this much is higher than the basic normal distribution estimation. Unfortunately, I never figured out how to do variance calculations for multihand poker. I just know the variance is higher than single-play.
Canyonero
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January 9th, 2013 at 12:05:53 PM permalink
Quote: tringlomane

The fact that he is playing 4-play, the odds of him being down this much is higher than the basic normal distribution estimation. Unfortunately, I never figured out how to do variance calculations for multihand poker. I just know the variance is higher than single-play.



I have taken that into account in my estimate. It is in the same ballpark though, as you can see here:

https://wizardofodds.com/games/video-poker/appendix/3/

(In our example, 1 point difference in SD is about 500 bucks, which doesn't change the numbers all that much.)
tringlomane
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January 9th, 2013 at 12:07:27 PM permalink
Yeah, just using JoB variance numbers will be close enough. I still need to learn how though...blah.
thecesspit
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January 9th, 2013 at 1:06:52 PM permalink
Quote: tringlomane

Yeah, just using JoB variance numbers will be close enough. I still need to learn how though...blah.



I think you use a multiplier which is the square root of the number of hands.
"Then you can admire the real gambler, who has neither eaten, slept, thought nor lived, he has so smarted under the scourge of his martingale, so suffered on the rack of his desire for a coup at trente-et-quarante" - Honore de Balzac, 1829
Ardent1
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January 9th, 2013 at 1:12:09 PM permalink
Quote: tringlomane

His total numbers indicate 262k hands, but it's 4-play though.



You have to consider the dealt hand effect. A flopped RF is 4 x RF's but comes once in about 650,000 hands.
tringlomane
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January 9th, 2013 at 1:16:40 PM permalink
Quote: thecesspit

I think you use a multiplier which is the square root of the number of hands.



Nah, that's scaling standard deviation by number of hands played (which is useful to this problem, but not what I was talking about). I'm talking about determining the SD of 1 round of multihand video poker. The original poster is playing 4-handed and the variance of 1 round of 4 hands is different than playing 4 hands of a single play game since the multi-hand game is correlated by the cards originally dealt. The WOO site just spits out the answer for a few common games, and I have no easy idea where the numbers come from. Maybe they aren't easy to get.
Ardent1
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January 9th, 2013 at 6:05:25 PM permalink
Quote: tringlomane

The fact that he is playing 4-play, the odds of him being down this much is higher than the basic normal distribution estimation. Unfortunately, I never figured out how to do variance calculations for multihand poker. I just know the variance is higher than single-play.



The variance is higher due to the covariance with the base hand.

However, if you ignore the dealt hand effect, the variance is quite low.
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