June 8th, 2012 at 5:26:59 PM
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This is a craps question. Let's say one player plays against the house. Let's say they let him shoot the dice without a passline bet. Let's say he buys the 4 and 10 for $35 with a $1 vig paid up front. What kind of bankroll does the HOUSE need to have less than a 1% risk of ruin for a four hour session? What about buying the 5/9 or the 6/8.
Edit: Let's also say he ALWAYS works his bets.
Edit: Let's also say he ALWAYS works his bets.
June 8th, 2012 at 5:43:24 PM
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i know this is theoretical, but why would he buy the 6/8 at all,
and if the vig is paid up front, he wouldn't buy the 5/9 either..
and if the vig is paid up front, he wouldn't buy the 5/9 either..
In a bet, there is a fool and a thief.
- Proverb.
June 10th, 2012 at 11:47:18 PM
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Well it was kind of a weird question. My real question is how a guy figures out risk of ruin on craps. Say I buy the 4/10 for $20 each with vig up front. How much would I need to have less than 1% chance of losing everything before 4 hours. If it's $2000, would I then need $3500 for $35 if it's still a $1 vig, or will less suffice. Or could I get away with less if it's vig paid on win only?
The same could be asked if placing the 6/8.
The same could be asked if placing the 6/8.
June 11th, 2012 at 1:53:46 AM
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removed
silly
silly
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