September 5th, 2011 at 7:05:34 AM
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Hello,

I have posted a similar question in the Math group but I got no reply there. Sorry for duplicating the question here, but once I received help over here, and I hope to be the same now as well.

My concern is how to calculate the probability that the player will choose to use a specific feature?

I mean that in some slots there might be a feature that after each spin a player can choose to gamble to have a chance to double his/her winnings or loose them. Does anyone know how to calculate the probability of players taking this feature in order to calculate the total return of the slot?

Any help will be greatly appreciated.

Thank you.

I have posted a similar question in the Math group but I got no reply there. Sorry for duplicating the question here, but once I received help over here, and I hope to be the same now as well.

My concern is how to calculate the probability that the player will choose to use a specific feature?

I mean that in some slots there might be a feature that after each spin a player can choose to gamble to have a chance to double his/her winnings or loose them. Does anyone know how to calculate the probability of players taking this feature in order to calculate the total return of the slot?

Any help will be greatly appreciated.

Thank you.

September 5th, 2011 at 7:37:02 AM
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The total return doesn't change. There is no additional coin-in on a double-up, and no change in theoretical win (they're even-money propositions).

"In my own case, when it seemed to me after a long illness that death was close at hand, I found no little solace in playing constantly at dice."
-- Girolamo Cardano, 1563

September 5th, 2011 at 8:19:05 AM
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Thank you very much for the reply.

So does this mean that the total return of a player that does not take this feature at all, and of the other player that constantly takes this feature is the same?

So does this mean that the total return of a player that does not take this feature at all, and of the other player that constantly takes this feature is the same?

September 5th, 2011 at 9:19:10 AM
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In dollars, yes. If you count the re-wagered funds as new bets, then the percentage is lower. It's the same concept as playing the odds in craps: your theoretical house edge as a percentage decreases, but your dollar loss is still 7c per $5 passline bet regardless of the size of your odds wager.

"In my own case, when it seemed to me after a long illness that death was close at hand, I found no little solace in playing constantly at dice."
-- Girolamo Cardano, 1563

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