June 2nd, 2010 at 5:14:03 PM
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What are the odds of hitting an Omaha jackpot? Four 9's or better beat by a higher hand. 9 players to a table.
1 in ????????????? hands.
1 in ????????????? hands.
June 2nd, 2010 at 7:49:50 PM
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If the winning and/or losing hand is four of a kind, is the jackpot awarded if the board contains three of them, or only two?
June 3rd, 2010 at 11:22:32 AM
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Either one as it wouldn't matter. The only qualifications are quad 9's or better beat by a higher hand.
Example 1---Board 9 9 J J 3, Player "A" holds 9,9,x,x and player "B" holds J,J,x,x (jackpot)
Example 2---Board 9,9,9,J,J Player "A" holds a 9,x,x,x and player "B" holds J,J,x,x (jackpot)
Of course it doesn't have to be quads over quads. It could be a straight flush beat by a higher straight flush or quads beat by a straight flush.
Example 1---Board 9 9 J J 3, Player "A" holds 9,9,x,x and player "B" holds J,J,x,x (jackpot)
Example 2---Board 9,9,9,J,J Player "A" holds a 9,x,x,x and player "B" holds J,J,x,x (jackpot)
Of course it doesn't have to be quads over quads. It could be a straight flush beat by a higher straight flush or quads beat by a straight flush.
June 3rd, 2010 at 4:39:39 PM
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Quote: AceHoundEither one as it wouldn't matter.
Thank you. The reason I asked is because it does matter mathematically, plus most bad beat jackpots require that both players use both of their hole cards to form the hands in question. I wanted to make sure there was or was not a similar rule for the Omaha jackpot.
I'll run a simulation in the near future to estimate the probability of this occurring, since brute-forcing it would require examining 6,373,973,487,810,981,150,275,901,007,921,873,236,000,000,000 possible outcomes, which would of course take too long.