April 7th, 2014 at 2:46:51 PM
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In blackjack.
For example. What is the varience on a $1000 bankroll of:
1: Single hand $5 bet at a time
2: 3x hands at $5 each
3: Single hand $15 bet at a time
Obviously 3x $5 should have variance somewhere between 1x $5 and 1x $15. But where exactly it fits is beyond me at the moment.
Does anyone know?
For example. What is the varience on a $1000 bankroll of:
1: Single hand $5 bet at a time
2: 3x hands at $5 each
3: Single hand $15 bet at a time
Obviously 3x $5 should have variance somewhere between 1x $5 and 1x $15. But where exactly it fits is beyond me at the moment.
Does anyone know?
April 7th, 2014 at 2:47:46 PM
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Quote: NeutrinoFor example. What is the varience on a $1000 bankroll of:
1: Single hand $5 bet at a time
2: 3x hands at $5 each
3: Single hand $15 bet at a time
Obviously 3x $5 should have variance somewhere between 1x $5 and 1x $15. But where exactly it fits is beyond me at the moment.
Does anyone know?
It depends on the covariance between the hands, which depends on the game.
April 7th, 2014 at 2:52:30 PM
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I forgot to specify it was blackjack. I'm minorly interested how other game have their varience affected by multi-hand but i'm mostly interested in blackjack.
April 7th, 2014 at 3:03:08 PM
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Quote: NeutrinoI forgot to specify it was blackjack. I'm minorly interested how other game have their varience affected by multi-hand but i'm mostly interested in blackjack.
I don't know the answer off the top of my head. I'm sure it varies as the rules change.
The general formula is:
Var(X + Y + Z) = Var(X) + Var(Y) + Var(Z) + 2 Cov(X, Y) + 2 Cov(Y, Z) + 2 Cov(X, Z). Since the bets are all the same, this reduces to:
3x + 6y, where x is the variance of one hand and y is the covariance between any two different hands.
Also note that variance is a squared value, so in particular Var(3X) = 9 * Var(X), so this gives a result that is less than 1 hand of triple the bet. (In this case, Var(1 hand of $5) = x, Var(1 hand of $15) = 9x, and Var(3 hands of 5) = 3x + 6y. 0 < y < x, so you are correct in your intuition that it lies between the two values.
April 9th, 2014 at 9:18:19 AM
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As it is quite clear that var($5 hand) is lower than var($15 hand), I think the interesting question should take into account the OP's mention of a $1000 bankroll.
But for this, we must know how he plays that bankroll. Too simple to imagine he plays 200 $5 hands. There are splits and doubles. He probably plays some of the won money, too.
But for this, we must know how he plays that bankroll. Too simple to imagine he plays 200 $5 hands. There are splits and doubles. He probably plays some of the won money, too.
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