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Let's say you make a $100 wager with a friend before the season that the University of Michigan will win the Big 10. Season goes by, Michigan wins the Big 10. You pay your friend the $100. A year later, it's found that Michigan had been using an ineligible player and is stripped of the Big 10 title.
What do you think is the right course of action? Does whether or not you have paid your friend yet have any bearing on your decision?
The legal side of me asks, however, what is the statute of limitations on this type of gambling bet? Had you placed this bet at a professional sports book and a year later it was proven that one of the teams cheated, I would guess that the sports book would not refund your money. More importantly, I would guess that you, as a gambler, would not give the casino back their money had you won.
I know that the statute of limitations for gambling losses varies from state to state, but normally it is between 3 months and 1 year.
Quote: FinsRuleThis exact situation did not happen to me, but something sort of similar did.
Let's say you make a $100 wager with a friend before the season that the University of Michigan will win the Big 10. Season goes by, Michigan wins the Big 10. You pay your friend the $100. A year later, it's found that Michigan had been using an ineligible player and is stripped of the Big 10 title.
What do you think is the right course of action? Does whether or not you have paid your friend yet have any bearing on your decision?
Let the bet stand. The team still won the games. Unless it is a total fix like the Black Sox such a thing is not worth making an issue out of.
In this case they fielded a team and the team won. NCAA eligibility rules are a bit on the silly side as it is about nothing but cash yet they pretend academics still matter to them (they don't.)
Quote: boymimboYour friend should give you back the money and declare the bet a draw because of a technicality.
Good question. This approach seems reasonable to me. Call it a draw.
Given that it's a bet between friends though... If I had initially won the bet I would still offer the $100 back, along with a round of drinks as interest. No need to seed any bad feelings on a friendly wager.
Quote: SOOPOONote that the Wiz and JL come to the same conclusion. As did I. Now if Nareed ank mkl can also agree..... then...
But their agreement is coincidental, in that it's based on much, much different personal...um...philosophies.
I would imagine Josef Stalin and Mahatma Gandhi agreed on at least SOME issues, much as Jerry and the Wiz will at times agree.
There has to be a time limit on this sort of bet. I think a month is reasonable. In that case, it was probably known very shortly after the season that Michigan did something wrong and it took 2 weeks for everything to get sorted out. A year later though and generally it was because some kid took some money which has no impact at all on them winning the game or not.
Quote: WizardVictories can be stripped years or decades later in some cases, like the Olympics. In the interests of avoiding arguments, the initial ruling should stand for purposes of scoring the bet.
I wonder what would have happened during the 1972 Olympic basketball final, where the USSR didn't "win" until about an hour after the US did. (If there was a line on that game, however, I have to believe the USSR would have covered the original result, which was a one-point victory for the USA.)
Sportbook tickets are bearer documents, right? Once they're cashed, they're cashed. If the outcome changes it's very difficult (and probably not worth the casino's time) to hunt down the original bettors. I think the rule should be the same here. The cash transaction represents that both parties agree forever to the outcome of the wager.