kingcreights
kingcreights
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Joined: Mar 11, 2014
July 19th, 2016 at 11:33:51 PM permalink
If roulette were just invented for the first time and the game only allowed players to bet on straight ups, does that mean that version of the game would have a higher variance than say if the game only allowed you to bet on corners.

The reason I ask this is, is I'm trying to understand the concept of variance in a new game, and whether a casino is more likely to trial a game with low variance as opposed to high variance. Or does the concept of variance not matter that much when developing a new game.

Also if anybody could point me in the direction of some articles or previous post that explain the importance of variance from a casinos perspective.

Cheers
charliepatrick
charliepatrick
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Joined: Jun 17, 2011
July 20th, 2016 at 5:13:27 AM permalink
My personal feeling is they look at the largest possible loss as well as the risk. So for a BJ based game they might allow a maximum bet of £500 whereas for a poker based game that provides a larger possible payout (e.g. RF) the maximum might only be £50. Another factor is the less risky games can have a lower House Edge than a higher risk game - for instance the common 3CP sidebets have House Edge similar to [UK] Roulette, whereas the "Top 3" sidebet (can pay 270-1) has a horrendous House Edge!
http://www.ukcasinotablegames.info/blackjacktop3.html
http://www.ukcasinotablegames.info/poker.html
Romes
Romes
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Joined: Jul 22, 2014
July 20th, 2016 at 7:08:12 AM permalink
Things with lower odds will have lower variance. If you were only allowed to bet the 1 to 1 bets then your variance would be 1... as you'll only ever win or lose 1 unit. This would be lower than blackjacks 1.15.
Playing it correctly means you've already won.
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