Bondy3
Bondy3
Joined: Jan 4, 2013
  • Threads: 23
  • Posts: 106
January 23rd, 2017 at 3:27:24 PM permalink
am I better off playing 100 hands of JoB at $1 or 1 hand of JoB at $100? assuming my goal is to put some large specified amount of coin in.

What about 50 play at $0.25 vs 1 play at $50?

where is the breakeven? for n-play vs 1-play?

I looked at the wizard multi-hand VP variance calculator but I cant really understand it
http://wizardofodds.com/games/video-poker/appendix/3/

can someone please help me understand this concept?
Thanks
odiousgambit
odiousgambit
Joined: Nov 9, 2009
  • Threads: 312
  • Posts: 8647
January 23rd, 2017 at 4:25:33 PM permalink
Generally speaking, the same amount of action in less trials means more variance. Maybe the way to look at it is that less trials gives the variance a better chance to work in your favor. The fact of the matter is, variance is always a double edged sword, so placing large bets is also your best chance to lose all your bankroll quickly. For this reason it is reasonable to want to sometimes limit variance even in negative expectation, to find a sweet spot.

Since you mention your goal is coin-in, it sounds like you are looking for something from that - if so less variance is probably better. Go with more plays at smaller bets. Certainly this is true if your expectation becomes positive.

btw sometimes 25 cent bets are the only way to be sure to avoid the W2g.
the next time Dame Fortune toys with your heart, your soul and your wallet, raise your glass and praise her thus: “Thanks for nothing, you cold-hearted, evil, damnable, nefarious, low-life, malicious monster from Hell!” She is, after all, stone deaf. ... Arnold Snyder
Bondy3
Bondy3
Joined: Jan 4, 2013
  • Threads: 23
  • Posts: 106
January 23rd, 2017 at 7:31:11 PM permalink
Yes my goal is coin in.

Action vs number of trials seems like a good way to calculate it.

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