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December 19th, 2013 at 9:36:35 PM
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If you had the option between 10 bucks a hand 8/5 bonus poker (single line 2 dollar denom) and 12.50 a hand (50 play 5 cent denom). The variance for 50 line is 124.785405. The variance for single line is 20.9. Does this mean that the variance for 50 play is 6 times higher assuming you are betting the same amount of money?
This may sound like a stupid question but wouldn't it be better to play the single line games then? It would have less variance correct? I always thought that multi line games had less variance, but maybe they have more. Is that the correct interpretation of those lists of variance per game. They are listed here in case you have not seen them.
https://wizardofodds.com/games/video-poker/appendix/3/
Thanks,
Ozzy
This may sound like a stupid question but wouldn't it be better to play the single line games then? It would have less variance correct? I always thought that multi line games had less variance, but maybe they have more. Is that the correct interpretation of those lists of variance per game. They are listed here in case you have not seen them.
https://wizardofodds.com/games/video-poker/appendix/3/
Thanks,
Ozzy
casino's money disappears
the execs worry when the wizard is near
He turns tears into joy
Everyone's happy when the wizard walks by
December 19th, 2013 at 11:04:41 PM
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I may be wrong on this, but my understanding of it is that the individual draw from a multihand expresses decreased variance, but since each of those hands is based off your initial draw, the variance of the game is amplified.
...At least, that's the way I always thought of it.
...At least, that's the way I always thought of it.
December 19th, 2013 at 11:32:31 PM
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The variance numbers are in betting units so you have to convert them to dollars. Also variance is technically in units of dollars squared so to make a fair comparison you need to convert the games to standard deviations (SD), which is the square root of variance and scales with the square root of hands played.
The one play is more simple:
Variance = 20.9 bets^2/hand^2
SD = 4.57 bets/hand × $10 = $45.7/hand
Now for 50 play:
SD of one hand of 50-play nickel poker =(124.79 bets^2/hand^2)^0.5 =11.17 bets/hand
SD for 50 hands played:
(50 hands/round)^0.5 × (11.17 bets/hand) × ($0.25 bet/hand) = $19.75
So in this case the 50-play would be less swingy.
The one play is more simple:
Variance = 20.9 bets^2/hand^2
SD = 4.57 bets/hand × $10 = $45.7/hand
Now for 50 play:
SD of one hand of 50-play nickel poker =(124.79 bets^2/hand^2)^0.5 =11.17 bets/hand
SD for 50 hands played:
(50 hands/round)^0.5 × (11.17 bets/hand) × ($0.25 bet/hand) = $19.75
So in this case the 50-play would be less swingy.
December 21st, 2013 at 3:25:36 AM
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Thanks Tringlomane. This makes sense. 50 play is more fun anyway!!
casino's money disappears
the execs worry when the wizard is near
He turns tears into joy
Everyone's happy when the wizard walks by
December 21st, 2013 at 8:22:44 PM
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Personally, the 50-play for sure. It's far less variance (not in the mathematical sense, but in the "video poker-er" sense).
"Dice, verily, are armed with goads and driving-hooks, deceiving and tormenting, causing grievous woe." -Rig Veda 10.34.4
December 21st, 2013 at 10:35:36 PM
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I think of multi line games, especially 50-line games, as "second chance games." For example, on a single line VP machine you are dealt 4 to the royal and you miss it. But on a 50-line game when you are dealt 4 to the royal you know have "fifty second chanced." Whenever I am dealt trip aces or four to the royal on a single line game I always wish that it had happened on a multi line, "second chance game" instead.
December 22nd, 2013 at 12:35:53 AM
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Quote: AlanMendelsonI think of multi line games, especially 50-line games, as "second chance games." For example, on a single line VP machine you are dealt 4 to the royal and you miss it. But on a 50-line game when you are dealt 4 to the royal you know have "fifty second chanced." Whenever I am dealt trip aces or four to the royal on a single line game I always wish that it had happened on a multi line, "second chance game" instead.
I agree...unless you hit it the "first time" :P
December 22nd, 2013 at 7:09:00 AM
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DUHHIIIIIIIII HEARD THAT!
December 22nd, 2013 at 5:20:06 PM
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Quote: IbeatyouracesThat happened to a guy I know Friday. Unfortunately he plays the 2 cent, 50 play games and only plays 1-3 credits per line and enough lines to satisfy the $1.00 minimum bet. He had a 4 to a royal and hit on the initial line. They play a horrible strategy also that it makes me cringe.
Why would he do this surely if he was just looking for free drinks or something he could play like nickel video poker. Or heck even just betting the full 5 credits per line and playing 10 line.
December 22nd, 2013 at 6:03:07 PM
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DUHHIIIIIIIII HEARD THAT!