October 26th, 2016 at 9:50:35 PM
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I know what edge sorting is, and I am sure you can see the difference on the back of the card when you are sitting at your own table holding the card in your hand.
But in real life, that card must be 4 or 5 feet from you. Dealer slide the card from the shoe and turn it over. The back is expose for maybe at most 1 to 2 seconds. And you have to act like you are not looking. Under these conditions, how on earth is edge sorting even possible?
But in real life, that card must be 4 or 5 feet from you. Dealer slide the card from the shoe and turn it over. The back is expose for maybe at most 1 to 2 seconds. And you have to act like you are not looking. Under these conditions, how on earth is edge sorting even possible?
October 26th, 2016 at 11:04:21 PM
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It's all described here:
https://cases.justia.com/federal/district-courts/new-jersey/njdce/1:2014cv02283/302463/107/0.pdf?ts=1477131948
Start on p. 7.
https://cases.justia.com/federal/district-courts/new-jersey/njdce/1:2014cv02283/302463/107/0.pdf?ts=1477131948
Start on p. 7.
"In my own case, when it seemed to me after a long illness that death was close at hand, I found no little solace in playing constantly at dice."
-- Girolamo Cardano, 1563
October 27th, 2016 at 8:07:26 AM
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Thanks for the link.
I can now better understand the decision, which seems to hinge on the court's definition of "marked cards."
The court's interpretation of the term, while certainly subject to attack, seems logical enough and reeks of common sense (a rare commodity in a courtroom).
I can now better understand the decision, which seems to hinge on the court's definition of "marked cards."
The court's interpretation of the term, while certainly subject to attack, seems logical enough and reeks of common sense (a rare commodity in a courtroom).
"What, me worry?"
October 27th, 2016 at 8:09:16 AM
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Quote: MrVThanks for the link.
I can now better understand the decision, which seems to hinge on the court's definition of "marked cards."
The court's interpretation of the term, while certainly subject to attack, seems logical enough and reeks of common sense (a rare commodity in a courtroom).
I think you meant to write reeks of NONSENSE not common sense.
Happy days are here again
October 27th, 2016 at 8:41:37 AM
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I understand that many people disagree with the court's interpretation; my point is that it seems to be defensible: I've no dog in this fight.
Yes, Ivey et al did not touch the cards, but his instructions to the dealer led to him having a quantifiable advantage, which the court felt was wrong.
Whether the advantage results from daubing or edge sorting seems irrelevant: the focus instead is on whether the player's actions are designed to result in him having an advantage.
This case could, and arguably should, go up on appeal (another bite of the apple).
Yes, Ivey et al did not touch the cards, but his instructions to the dealer led to him having a quantifiable advantage, which the court felt was wrong.
Whether the advantage results from daubing or edge sorting seems irrelevant: the focus instead is on whether the player's actions are designed to result in him having an advantage.
This case could, and arguably should, go up on appeal (another bite of the apple).
"What, me worry?"
October 27th, 2016 at 1:51:53 PM
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It's an interesting decision. Ivey and Sun's defense of course is that the cards are not physically marked and therefore they weren't breaking rules. The court felt that the way the cards were being manipulated (by the dealer) constituting marking and therefore in violation of New Jersey's gambling laws but not the laws of Baccarat. They lost for breach of contract, but their charges of fraud and conspiracy were dismissed.
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You want the truth! You can't handle the truth!
October 27th, 2016 at 2:01:49 PM
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Quote: MrV
Yes, Ivey et al did not touch the cards, but his instructions to the dealer led to him having a quantifiable advantage, which the court felt was wrong.
However, the player doing things to have a quantifiable edge is legal, as demonstrated with counting cards.
What the judge ruled is that Ivey caused the cards to be marked.
To assess this ruling we need to define what constitutes a marked card. To me a card is marked, if after randomizing a deck properly you can determine the card by looking at the back of the it. With edge sorting this is not the case, as randomizing a deck should always involve a turn.
In the Ivey case, what happened is that the player asked the house to modify their card handling procedures, that then interacted with a flaw in the shuffle. After this it was just a matter of tracking the groups of cards through the shuffle and betting accordingly.
October 27th, 2016 at 2:54:18 PM
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Also, by counting cards, I'm effectively marking the remaining cards.
DUHHIIIIIIIII HEARD THAT!
October 27th, 2016 at 3:41:48 PM
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Using the court's definition of a marked card or marked deck, the cards are inherently marked. Ivey & co did not mark the cards, but simply changed the groupings. IE: They are already sorted (non-optimally) from the start....he just changed the sort.