I live in Austria and we have a similar game here call Easy Holdem. There is one major difference to THB: all bets are of equal size. The ante, flop, turn and river bets are required to be the same amount.
I tried to adapt the house edge sheet from the wizard of odds site and came up with a house advantage of 3,513%, element of risk given the average wager of 2,86335 times the ante at 1,227%
Can somebody confirm this?
How does it affect strategy (ev of starting hands)?
Thank you,
Shodan
Quote: ShodanHello!
I live in Austria and we have a similar game here call Easy Holdem. There is one major difference to THB: all bets are of equal size. The ante, flop, turn and river bets are required to be the same amount.
I tried to adapt the house edge sheet from the wizard of odds site and came up with a house advantage of 3,513%, element of risk given the average wager of 2,86335 times the ante at 1,227%
Can somebody confirm this?
How does it affect strategy (ev of starting hands)?
Thank you,
Shodan
Shodan,
I get the same HE as you, below (using the Wiz's table modified for your reported pay):
Win | Prob | Return |
---|---|---|
-2 | 0.291077 | -0.582154 |
0 | 0.022638 | 0 |
1 | 0.095338 | 0.095338 |
2 | 0.019495 | 0.03899 |
-3 | 0.025099 | -0.075297 |
0 | 0.003015 | 0 |
2 | 0.04129 | 0.08258 |
3 | 0.010889 | 0.032667 |
-3 | 0.034095 | -0.102285 |
0 | 0.002437 | 0 |
2 | 0.022424 | 0.044848 |
3 | 0.004533 | 0.013599 |
-4 | 0.100754 | -0.403016 |
0 | 0.00985 | 0 |
3 | 0.222419 | 0.667257 |
4 | 0.049398 | 0.197592 |
-1 | 0.045249 | -0.045249 |
1 | -0.03513 |
If it's fair to take off 1 whole unit /bet, since it's a forced bet or fold change of 1 unit, I get an EOR of 1.24%. that's 3.513/2.8181 avg bet. That may well be an incorrect assumption on my part (the calculation of average bet).
I do not know how it would affect strategy; I suspect not at all.
I recalculated the avg. bet with (probability*ante units bet)+1 and that is how I came up with 2,86335
I am not really good at maths but I assumed that by altering the payout (1 unit on the flop instead of 2) the ev of the starting hands would change as well.
How would standard deviation be affected?
Shodan
Quote: ShodanThank you for your answer.
I recalculated the avg. bet with (probability*ante units bet)+1 and that is how I came up with 2,86335
I am not really good at maths but I assumed that by altering the payout (1 unit on the flop instead of 2) the ev of the starting hands would change as well.
How would standard deviation be affected?
Shodan
I would think the standard deviation would be lower because the outlier units would be closer to the mean. Variance would be dampened.