August 4th, 2012 at 11:17:13 AM
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Here is a stat question for you. Let's say that you have EXACTLY a two-percent edge (as written in sports betting there is NO WAY to calculate one's EXACT edge/disadvantage) on 2,500 straight bets. What is your probability of 'being ahead' (I am assuming that all 2,500 bets are for the same amount of money) after this 2,500 bet run?
Thanks again!!!!
Thanks again!!!!
August 4th, 2012 at 11:21:05 AM
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Evens payouts or -110 (10/11) bets?
"Then you can admire the real gambler, who has neither eaten, slept, thought nor lived, he has so smarted under the scourge of his martingale, so suffered on the rack of his desire for a coup at trente-et-quarante" - Honore de Balzac, 1829
August 4th, 2012 at 11:25:49 AM
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-110 to win 100
Thanks
Thanks
August 4th, 2012 at 11:40:05 AM
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This is a binomial distribution probability question.
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silly
Sally
removed
silly
Sally
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