May 12th, 2016 at 3:32:09 PM
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does anyone know the odds of any one player getting any two suited cards pre flop ?
what do the odds become that 1 of 2 players has such a hand pre flop ?
Thanks
what do the odds become that 1 of 2 players has such a hand pre flop ?
Thanks
May 12th, 2016 at 11:35:12 PM
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After you're dealt 1 card, there are 12 left of that suit out of the remaining 51 cards. So, 12/51 = 23.5%.
May 17th, 2016 at 7:57:06 AM
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Quote: BTLWIAfter you're dealt 1 card, there are 12 left of that suit out of the remaining 51 cards. So, 12/51 = 23.5%.
Yes, so the probability a hand is offsuit is 76.5%. Then (this is slightly wrong because the hands aren't independent, but it's close) the probability at least one of two hands is suited is:
1 - P(both are offsuit)
1 - (.765)*(.765)
1 - .585
= about 41.5%
May 17th, 2016 at 9:39:29 AM
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Gary, you've been posting a lot of questions like this. It's really good that you're curious and asking questions, but to be really honest with you I'm quite positive you can find the answer to all of your questions thus far just by google searching them...Quote: gary55does anyone know the odds of any one player getting any two suited cards pre flop ?
what do the odds become that 1 of 2 players has such a hand pre flop ?
Thanks
For example, what are the odds of getting two suited cards preflop? Just typing that in to google hit this as one of the first sites, which has a TON of odds for different scenarios/situations you probably are asking: http://www.suntzupoker.com/poker-odds.aspx
And sure enough right on this page it answers your preflop suited hands question: http://www.suntzupoker.com/poker-odds.aspx#starting-hands
...and this was just the first website I clicked. It's good to be curious... but put a little effort in =).
Playing it correctly means you've already won.