chops5957
chops5957
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Joined: Dec 19, 2009
December 19th, 2009 at 7:38:32 PM permalink
From reading other articles I know that if the dealer has a 9, he has a 23% chance of busting that hand.

How was this percentage chance solved and how can you work out the percentage of dealer busting of any card?
chops5957
chops5957
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Joined: Dec 19, 2009
December 19th, 2009 at 7:47:12 PM permalink
please help!
DealerJ
DealerJ
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Joined: Nov 16, 2009
December 20th, 2009 at 9:23:27 PM permalink
If you're interested in knowing overall bust probabilities, you can find them here:

(before the dealer peeks for BJ)

If you are interested in the calculations themselves, then I cannot help you, but I'm sure some of the less math-challenged members of the board will be glad to.
MrPapagiorgio
MrPapagiorgio
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Joined: Nov 11, 2009
December 21st, 2009 at 12:30:34 AM permalink
It is basic probability -- in plain english, you count how many cards in a deck (52), then how many of those cards are cards in which the dealer has to hit on - (like if his hole card is a 2 through 6 - then there are 24 cards on which he could bust because he has to hit), then how many of the remaining cards will cause the dealer to bust after a hit (this will depend on which card they last drew, but the subset will include 10's, 9's, 8's, 7's, 6's, and then you will also have to add in the possibility of double hits - where the dealer draws a 4 and has to hit a second time). Anyway, I left some parts out, such as number of cards already played (such as the dealer's 9) and a few other bits, but hopefully you at least get the idea. Depending on Michael's mood he may show you the whole equation.
So I says to him, I said "Get your own monkey!"
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