August 19th, 2010 at 7:59:42 PM
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This happened to me twice on my last trip. I'm playing $5 with a $5 match play coupon, and I get a hand I would normally double on. I doubled both times and was fortunate enough to win both.
But I won $15 each time: $5 from the initial bet, $5 from the coupon, and $5 from the double. If I don't double, I stand to win $10 ($5 initial bet, $5 double). The thing that got me thinking is doubling a soft total got me a low card for another soft total that I probably wanted to hit again. (Sorry, I don't remember the specifics.)
So should I change my strategy for doubling when using a coupon?
But I won $15 each time: $5 from the initial bet, $5 from the coupon, and $5 from the double. If I don't double, I stand to win $10 ($5 initial bet, $5 double). The thing that got me thinking is doubling a soft total got me a low card for another soft total that I probably wanted to hit again. (Sorry, I don't remember the specifics.)
So should I change my strategy for doubling when using a coupon?
August 19th, 2010 at 9:46:09 PM
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Quote: ChampagneFireballThis happened to me twice on my last trip. I'm playing $5 with a $5 match play coupon, and I get a hand I would normally double on. I doubled both times and was fortunate enough to win both.
But I won $15 each time: $5 from the initial bet, $5 from the coupon, and $5 from the double. If I don't double, I stand to win $10 ($5 initial bet, $5 double). The thing that got me thinking is doubling a soft total got me a low card for another soft total that I probably wanted to hit again. (Sorry, I don't remember the specifics.)
So should I change my strategy for doubling when using a coupon?
This illustrates a question I've had many times in one form or another: is a $5 bet with a $5 matchplay a $10 bet, or is it a $5 bet with a $5 bonus if you win? Obviously, this has a huge impact when you get dealt a (winning) blackjack. Sometimes the language on the coupon is clear; sometimes, it's ambiguous.
When I split a pair, I've been allowed to match the entire amount of the bet+coupon on the second hand; I have also been told I could only play the split hand for the base amount of the bet. Usually, however, I've gotten away with either, which means that I bet the full amount for an offensive split (like AA) and the smaller amount for a defensive split (like 88 vs. 9).
So your question raises in turn a new strategy question: doubling for less, in effect, if that's all you can do. Let's assume that you can only double the base bet, i.e., $5--so you ARE doubling for less, in effect. Now, every double down when you MIGHT want to take another (fourth) card results in a lowering of the overall win percentage---but the increased bet amount makes up for that. However, basic strategy presumes that you are, in fact, doubling your bet when you double down--but since you are 1/2ing down, there isn't as much compensation for not being able to take another card (if you had simply hit). Therefore, I would question whether hitting rather than doubling was actually better on all soft doubles, but especially A2/A3/A4; hard 10 vs. 9; hard 11 vs. 10. (Single vs. multiple decks would play into this decision as well.)
So the question is: for which doubles is (1.5)(EV with doubling) < (EV without doubling)? Sounds like one for the Wiz.
The fact that a believer is happier than a skeptic is no more to the point than the fact that a drunken man is happier than a sober one. The happiness of credulity is a cheap and dangerous quality.---George Bernard Shaw
August 20th, 2010 at 4:42:12 AM
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August 20th, 2010 at 5:00:43 AM
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Indeed, if I am not mistaken, it looks like (for infinite decks, S17), you should *not* "1.5 down" with soft 13 or 14, or with a 10 against 9. 11 vs. 10 is still a "go", and so is soft 15 vs. 5 and 6, but not vs. 4.
Other exceptions are to not double 9 and soft 18 against a 3.
Other exceptions are to not double 9 and soft 18 against a 3.
"When two people always agree one of them is unnecessary"