Statistics of this and that. Roulette

Hello all! I have a simple question but can't do the calculations on my own. Alas, I'm here so please help if you can. Thank you in advance.
So my question is regarding roulette. I'd like to know the best # of single number plays 1-36, not picking 0 or 00 ever just because I choose not to! Anyways from what I've figured, the best number of plays lets say with a $5 minimum would be 6 individual numbered bets. I could be completely wrong so please let me know. My real question comes after this so if the number is not 6, take the proper number , with the best odds and answer the following question with it. So I wanted to know if I used some insight here and was like 'Hmm hey it probably isn't a good idea of playing a number that just hit." So placing 6 bets while not playing the previous what numbers hit would yield the best results statistically speaking. I'm thinking that if lets say the previous 3 numbers were 12,31, and 35 that my next bet will be 6 #'s that do not include those previous 3 that recently hit and thus I could (I know technically not true, but still has merit in my mind) eliminate them from my odds of hitting if say my odds of hitting that number 12 2x in a row was like 1/5000. Thus I'd have a 1/37 instead of a 1/38 odd of hitting my number. I hope this makes sense. I just want to know the best combination of the two, optimal # of bets to place and optimal # of previous hits to exclude simultaneously to yield the best results. I hope this makes sense. I know its rather wordy.

Thanks!

Hi, welcome Oik. It is imperative that you understand that each trial is independent, meaning that the previous results in no way affect the next outcome. Therefore, every number is 1/38, every time.

Any bet you make at roulette is expected to lose, so the least money will yield the best results. You may consider also betting on a color or Odds or Even to make your money last longer.

Hey Studmuffn thank you for the prompt reply. I understand what you're saying that the odds are 1/38 per attempt and perhaps I don't fully grasp it yet but let me dive deeper into my questioning to clarify. So my understanding is that if I play 6 numbers I have a 6/38 odd of hitting a number being that each number being played has a 1/38 chance of being hit. Now following this what are the chances a number hit will hit the exact same number the following spin? 1/38 x 1/38 = 0.0692%. Maybe that is where I'm misunderstanding. But if that is true I make the assumption (albeit untrue) that that number will not hit the following spin, thus my new calculation would be out of 37 and not 38 because 0.069% is so small I am making it a non-incident (I know not true, but very, very unlikely). So as you're saying it is always 1/38, I do agree, but I'm talking about a specific situation in which a number is hit consecutively or within a certain time-period of being hit, i.e. within 3 spins of hit. I might be applying my understanding of this idea inappropriately, so if I am please give me the details, I'm not the best by any means at statistical analysis or understanding. Thanks!

This is where people get confused. If I say 34 will hit two times in a row BEFORE any spin, it's 1/38 x 1/38. Now if I say 34 will hit "again" on the next spin after it just hit, it's 1/38.

Ibeatyouraces thanks for the clarification. I think I understand this better now after you put it so well. I'm making the statistic a cumulative effect when in fact they are separate and individual so I can't use that approach after the spin has occurred. Thank you again .

Quote: OptimismIsKey

Now following this what are the chances a number hit will hit the exact same number the following spin? 1/38 x 1/38 = 0.0692%. Maybe that is where I'm misunderstanding. But if that is true I make the assumption (albeit untrue) that that number will not hit the following spin, thus my new calculation would be out of 37 and not 38 because 0.069% is so small I am making it a non-incident (I know not true, but very, very unlikely).

While it indeed seems very unlikely, and your math may be correct, it happens more times than I can remember. The same number hitting two times in a row certainly defies the odds of it happening. Why I don't know but I notice it almost every session at a roulette wheel.