SoNouveau
SoNouveau
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Joined: Jul 22, 2017
July 22nd, 2017 at 7:20:41 PM permalink
Are there graphs (or perhaps tables or something) that would show me the following?!?

What I want to see is ... wins and losses if one plays video poker, jacks or better, "perfectly." Over a large number of hands, of course.

We all know that nothing remains static. And that's what I want to see, but I don't know what WORD we use to describe it.

TRENDS? Fluctuation? Results? Results over time?

In other words, if in the first hand of video poker you win $5, then you lose $5, then you lose another $5, then you win $25, then you win $100 in the first five hands of poker--that's what I want to see, without having to play the hands and without recording any data myself. LOL

We would assume a constant bet with each hand, be it $1 or $5, and "perfect play," etc.

Do such animals exist?!? Can someone provide me with a link?!?
RS
RS
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Joined: Feb 11, 2014
July 23rd, 2017 at 1:04:46 AM permalink
I believe you are looking for a "random walk simulation" -- essentially a graph showing what your results could be for any given session, as if you had played that session.

I don't know of any software that does this specifically, but you can do this in Excel with a bit of work if you use the combinations found here: https://wizardofodds.com/games/video-poker/strategy/a-1-b-74-c-1-d-0-d-1-d-2-d-3-d-4-d-6-d-9-d-25-d-50-d-800/


I don't know if Excel's RNG is "good enough" for this (if anyone knows, can ya let me know?).....but what I would do, is something like this.

In A1, do =RANDBETWEEN(1, 19933230517200), then in B1 write =IF(A1<=493512264, 3995, 0), then in C1 write =IF(OR(A1>493512264, A1<= (493512264+2178883296)), 245, 0) and so on.

The range 1 to 493512264 represents # of combinations for a RF. The range 493512265 to 493512264+2178883296 represents combinations for SF. Etc. etc. 3995 is profit on a RF. 245 is profit on a SF. Do the same thing for 4oak, FH, etc. all through-out "nothing" which would be a -5.

Then at end of row in L1, do a =SUM(B1:K1), which will be the total outcome for that hand. Then in M1 do a running sum.

In M1, write "=L1".
In M2, write "=M1+L2".

Then make a line graph, M1:M1000 (for 1000 hands) or for however many hands you want.

I may have missed a step and perhaps messed up with the way to do the numbers and combinations, but you get the drift.
rsactuary
rsactuary
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Joined: Sep 6, 2014
July 23rd, 2017 at 12:33:03 PM permalink
I would just use the probabilities listed in that link. Should get you the same answer, but maybe a little bit easier to work with.
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