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seven
seven
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October 30th, 2014 at 2:11:42 AM permalink
Hi all

I am back :) and need help with a Question . (I apology in advance for my english)

I saw a game offered and it looks simple and not fair to me and I want to make it a zero house edge so the player will have longer fun.

the game is called -find the coin- there are 3 coins and it looks like this

http://gyazo.com/02eae1c4e638246a302c4076e53733bd

the player is asked to click on one coin and then all 3 coins are switched and player will see if he clicked the winning coin. it is a chance 1 out of 3 to win = player will lose 2 out of 3 games.

after clicking a coin it looks like this

http://gyazo.com/a8f1535f6f469a6ec3567b8f11f60819

now lets get to my question:
I want to change the game by leaving the 1 out of 3 option in place (where player will lose 2 out of 3 leaving him with a loss of 1 after 3 games ).
and add another 3 coins option where the outcome would be 2 out of 3 (where the player will win 2 out of 3 games with a win of 1 after 3 games.

so lets say a player now will have the option to play 6 games and 3 of those games he will be offered with the 1 out of 3 win chance and 3 with the 2 out of 3 win chance. but the 6 games should be mixed so the player doesnt know when the 1 out of 3 or the 2 out of 3 version is offered. but to put in simple words, if he would bet all 6 games 1 chip house and player should end up not losing and not winning = zero HE

sure that the 6 games were only an example and what I meant is that it should be an infinite number where both options come mixed 50/50 so on the long run it should be 50/50 and actually zero HE game.

now would this be possible with a RNG (for online game) to mix the 2 options in a a fair way and outcome?

sorry if I confused you but any help and any questions are very much appeciated.

thanks
beachbumbabs
beachbumbabs
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October 30th, 2014 at 3:35:15 AM permalink
I think it would be simple to do this, where the second game had 2 coins out of 3 available, and over time those games were weighted and interspersed 50% of the time. But who would offer the game like that? The house can't make any money.

However, that 50% weighting could be manipulated to be 52/48% towards the house, or whatever they had to have to offer it.
If the House lost every hand, they wouldn't deal the game.
seven
seven
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October 30th, 2014 at 4:15:56 AM permalink
Quote: beachbumbabs

I think it would be simple to do this, where the second game had 2 coins out of 3 available, and over time those games were weighted and interspersed 50% of the time. But who would offer the game like that? The house can't make any money.

However, that 50% weighting could be manipulated to be 52/48% towards the house, or whatever they had to have to offer it.



thank You very much for the answer. I understand now that this would be no problem. actually I wanted to add the game to a bitcoin faucet. IMO in a faucet with a zero house game would keep the players longer on the website.

but what do You mean with -where the second game had 2 coins out of 3 available - ? do You mean to change the 2nd game to 2 coins instead of 3? or did I misunderstand You and You just repeated the game 2 out of 3?

if we change the weighting to 52/48% what would be the house edge? 4%? that would be a lot IMO

thanks again and good to know that this would be possible. oh forgot to ask if this weighting would be done in connection with a RNG?
beachbumbabs
beachbumbabs
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October 30th, 2014 at 4:32:10 AM permalink
I'm suggesting that it would be much easier to program if you had two games with identical appearance to the player, but 1 game was programmed with 1 coin, and the 2nd game was programmed with 2 coins. This would accomplish exactly what you want to do. You don't have to expose to the player how many coins are available unless you want to, though I think it would be a huge come-on for the players to know that some games had 2 of 3 chances to win.

The RNG seeding would control which game was randomly offered to the player on any given spin, and the long-term percentage of which game appears could be customized to provide whatever house edge you want to offer.
If the House lost every hand, they wouldn't deal the game.
seven
seven
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October 30th, 2014 at 4:54:43 AM permalink
Quote: beachbumbabs

I'm suggesting that it would be much easier to program if you had two games with identical appearance to the player, but 1 game was programmed with 1 coin, and the 2nd game was programmed with 2 coins. This would accomplish exactly what you want to do. You don't have to expose to the player how many coins are available unless you want to, though I think it would be a huge come-on for the players to know that some games had 2 of 3 chances to win.

The RNG seeding would control which game was randomly offered to the player on any given spin, and the long-term percentage of which game appears could be customized to provide whatever house edge you want to offer.



thanks again.

it looks that I still dont understand Your point regarding 1 coin and 2 coin.........
please let me again explain what I had in mind. the player would be informed that after he places his bet chances are 50/50% that each of the 2 versions could come up. oh now I see where probably my mistake is :) lets change the rule (thank You...it looks You enlightened me to get the right rule now)

game 1 is 1 out of 3 the player may chose 1 coin only. that means he has 1 out of 3 chance to get the winning coin
game 2 is also 1 out of 3 but player may chose 2 coins. that means he has 2 out of 3 chance to get the winning coin
now each time a player makes a bet he will be informed when presenting him the 3 coins to chose 1 or 2 coins.

now we should have a zero HE game if weighted 50/50%

The RNG seeding would control which game was randomly offered to the player on any given spin, and the long-term percentage of which game appears could be customized to provide whatever house edge you want to offer.

yes that is exactly what I hoped for when I presented my 1st question.
beachbumbabs
beachbumbabs
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October 30th, 2014 at 4:58:12 AM permalink
Quote: seven

thanks again.

it looks that I still dont understand Your point regarding 1 coin and 2 coin.........
please let me again explain what I had in mind. the player would be informed that after he places his bet chances are 50/50% that each of the 2 versions could come up. oh now I see where probably my mistake is :) lets change the rule (thank You...it looks You enlightened me to get the right rule now)

game 1 is 1 out of 3 the player may chose 1 coin only. that means he has 1 out of 3 chance to get the winning coin
game 2 is also 1 out of 3 but player may chose 2 coins. that means he has 2 out of 3 chance to get the winning coin
now each time a player makes a bet he will be informed when presenting him the 3 coins to chose 1 or 2 coins.

now we should have a zero HE game if weighted 50/50%

The RNG seeding would control which game was randomly offered to the player on any given spin, and the long-term percentage of which game appears could be customized to provide whatever house edge you want to offer.

yes that is exactly what I hoped for when I presented my 1st question.



You and I are talking about 2 different ways to accomplish the same thing; either would work at your discretion. I'm saying the player only ever gets 1 pick, but game 1 has only 1 winning spot of 3, game 2 has 2 winning spots of 3. You're saying the RNG could randomly offer 1 or 2 picks on the same game. Either could be set to whatever HE you wanted to offer; the frequency of game 1 appearing vs. game 2 appearing could be controlled the same way the frequency of offering 1 pick vs. 2 picks.
If the House lost every hand, they wouldn't deal the game.
seven
seven
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October 30th, 2014 at 5:16:31 AM permalink
Quote: beachbumbabs

Quote: seven

thanks again.

it looks that I still dont understand Your point regarding 1 coin and 2 coin.........
please let me again explain what I had in mind. the player would be informed that after he places his bet chances are 50/50% that each of the 2 versions could come up. oh now I see where probably my mistake is :) lets change the rule (thank You...it looks You enlightened me to get the right rule now)

game 1 is 1 out of 3 the player may chose 1 coin only. that means he has 1 out of 3 chance to get the winning coin
game 2 is also 1 out of 3 but player may chose 2 coins. that means he has 2 out of 3 chance to get the winning coin
now each time a player makes a bet he will be informed when presenting him the 3 coins to chose 1 or 2 coins.

now we should have a zero HE game if weighted 50/50%

The RNG seeding would control which game was randomly offered to the player on any given spin, and the long-term percentage of which game appears could be customized to provide whatever house edge you want to offer.

yes that is exactly what I hoped for when I presented my 1st question.



You and I are talking about 2 different ways to accomplish the same thing; either would work at your discretion. I'm saying the player only ever gets 1 pick, but game 1 has only 1 winning spot of 3, game 2 has 2 winning spots of 3. You're saying the RNG could randomly offer 1 or 2 picks on the same game. Either could be set to whatever HE you wanted to offer; the frequency of game 1 appearing vs. game 2 appearing could be controlled the same way the frequency of offering 1 pick vs. 2 picks.



:) ok well understood now.........I am glad that I can offer this kind of game and lets see what the user will say.

great help ....thanks
seven
seven
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November 10th, 2014 at 10:20:23 PM permalink
Hi again

my partner started to confuse me, so I came back with another question. hopefully one can help me to find the answer. we know now that 50/50% weighted will result in zero HE. what should be the weighting to get a 1% HE?

my partner said that 50.5%/49.5% weighting is under the line not a 1% HE. he is convinced that it is 0.33% HE and if I want a 1% HE I need to weight 51.5%/48.5%

he explained it like this:
lets take 1800 random games of the 2 versions weighted 50.5%/49.5%.
version 1 with 1 out of 3 win chance will be shown to the player 50.5% = 909 times
version 2 with 2 out of 3 win chance will be shown to the player 49.5% = 891 times

now version 1 should win 303 times and lose 606 times = 303-
now version 2 should win 594 times and lose 297 times = 297+
all together the player will lose 6 and 6 out of 1800 = 0.33% (HE)

now he is claiming that to get the 1% HE the weighting should be 51.5/48.5%

I understood his explanation but I am confused now :( please help me to understand what I missed here?

thanks
PeeMcGee
PeeMcGee
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November 11th, 2014 at 11:04:03 AM permalink
Let,
P = the probability of getting game 1
1-P = the probability of getting game 2

In other words, P is the weighting you are trying to find. Also,

Probability player wins game 1 = 1/3
Probability player wins game 2 = 2/3

Therefore, the player’s expected return from the game is…
(1/3)P + (2/3)(1-P) – (2/3)P – (1/3)(1-P)
= -(2/3)P + 1/3

Now, a house edge of 1% is the same as the player’s expected return of -1%. So…
-(2/3)P + 1/3 = -1/100
P = (1/100 + 1/3) * 3/2
P = 103/200
or 51.5%

You can find P for whatever HE you would like.
Romes
Romes
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November 11th, 2014 at 11:25:06 AM permalink
Why not just level the payouts for a 0 house edge so you can just stick to/offer one game and not have to get complex about it?

i.e. Player wins 1/3 times and loses 2/3 times, thus when the player wins they should win 2 to 1 since they're 2 times more likely to lose. Thus if a player loses twice, then wins once (1 out of 3) they, and the house, remain even.

I assume you're asking this for a non casino environment, as this would never, ever, make it near a casino environment. Interesting choice of bitcoins for the buttons btw =p.
Playing it correctly means you've already won.
seven
seven
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November 11th, 2014 at 11:30:47 AM permalink
Quote: PeeMcGee

Let,
P = the probability of getting game 1
1-P = the probability of getting game 2

In other words, P is the weighting you are trying to find. Also,

Probability player wins game 1 = 1/3
Probability player wins game 2 = 2/3

Therefore, the player’s expected return from the game is…
(1/3)P + (2/3)(1-P) – (2/3)P – (1/3)(1-P)
= -(2/3)P + 1/3

Now, a house edge of 1% is the same as the player’s expected return of -1%. So…
-(2/3)P + 1/3 = -1/100
P = (1/100 + 1/3) * 3/2
P = 103/200
or 51.5%

You can find P for whatever HE you would like.



thank You very much for taking the time and the explanation. I am not the mathematical formula guy but if I understood You right You are confirming my partners result that if we want to have 1% HE we need to weight 51.5/48.5%
P = 51.5%
-1P = 48.5%
seven
seven
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November 11th, 2014 at 11:36:08 AM permalink
Quote: Romes

Why not just level the payouts for a 0 house edge so you can just stick to/offer one game and not have to get complex about it?

i.e. Player wins 1/3 times and loses 2/3 times, thus when the player wins they should win 2 to 1 since they're 2 times more likely to lose. Thus if a player loses twice, then wins once (1 out of 3) they, and the house, remain even.

I assume you're asking this for a non casino environment, as this would never, ever, make it near a casino environment. Interesting choice of bitcoins for the buttons btw =p.



I am not sure if I understood Your point, but it is not for an land based casino environment, it is for an online gaming site or a btc faucet. by the way the bitcoins button screenshot was taken from a btc faucet.

thanks
PeeMcGee
PeeMcGee
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November 11th, 2014 at 12:57:16 PM permalink
Quote: seven

Quote: PeeMcGee

Let,
P = the probability of getting game 1
1-P = the probability of getting game 2

In other words, P is the weighting you are trying to find. Also,

Probability player wins game 1 = 1/3
Probability player wins game 2 = 2/3

Therefore, the player’s expected return from the game is…
(1/3)P + (2/3)(1-P) – (2/3)P – (1/3)(1-P)
= -(2/3)P + 1/3

Now, a house edge of 1% is the same as the player’s expected return of -1%. So…
-(2/3)P + 1/3 = -1/100
P = (1/100 + 1/3) * 3/2
P = 103/200
or 51.5%

You can find P for whatever HE you would like.



thank You very much for taking the time and the explanation. I am not the mathematical formula guy but if I understood You right You are confirming my partners result that if we want to have 1% HE we need to weight 51.5/48.5%
P = 51.5%
-1P = 48.5%



Yea, and maybe to offer a little more clarification on the math...

The player wins:
1/3 of the time when they get game 1
OR
2/3 of the time when they get game 2.

The probability of getting game 1 is P. Therefore, to get game 1 AND win is (1/3)*P.
Likewise, the probability of getting game 2 (which is 1-P) AND win is (2/3)*(1-P).

Therefore, the total probability of the player winning is the sum or: (1/3)P + (2/3)(1-P). call this eq.1

Do the same for losing. The player loses:
2/3 of the time when they get game 1
OR
1/3 of the time when they get game 2.

Therefore, the total probability of the player losing is: (2/3)P + (1/3)(1-P). call this eq.2

The House Edge is the difference between the player losing and the player winning. Or…
HE = P(Player Lose) – P(Player Win)
HE = eq.2 - eq.1
HE = (2/3)P + (1/3)(1-P) - (1/3)P - (2/3)(1-P)
HE = (2/3)P – 1/3

And again, plug in any HE you want and solve for P (or vice versa).
seven
seven
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November 11th, 2014 at 9:27:57 PM permalink
@PeeMcGee

thank You again for taking the time to simplify the formula and explanation. it was extremely helpful and very much appreciated.

BTW a family member told me to think about adding the game idea to facebook. as I am not familiar with it I will start
to research if it is worth the pain:)
in case I find out that it does make sense I will have another question for a formula guy like You :)
seven
seven
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November 23rd, 2014 at 1:32:10 PM permalink
How can I do a simulation of the weighting of 51.5/48.5%? just to get a picture if a martingale would work
against the game.

thanks
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