Quote:For each poker hand, determine: (adjusted win) = 2×(base win) + (multiplier) - 1. For example, if the base win for a full house is 8 and the multiplier is 12, then the adjusted win is 2 × 8 + 12 - 1 = 27.
What is the logic or math behind this?
In the example with a 12 multiplier, why isn’t the full house adjusted win 12x8?
How should the equation change if betting more than one credit? The base win is a multiple of the number of credits (minus RF bonus on max bet. Should the multiplier and/or -1 be multiplied as well?
Is he starting with a 2x multiplier on the current hand? It seems weird to me that he is valuing the future hand at a full 12-1 when that hand is only worth the ev of the 12-1 given the strategy, but it’s a quote without context so who knows.
Also, this applies only if you intend to play again if you win; otherwise, use "normal" strategy (and, while you're at it, only play 5 credits instead of 10).
The base win value is what it normally pays. This is unaffected by the multiplier because the formula is used only to determine the strategy, and all of the payouts will be multiplied by the same amount; this would not change the strategy - just the expected return.
"Multiplier - 1" is the effect of the next hand on your strategy.
This formula is only good for creating a strategy with their strategy maker then? As in, the outputted probabilities/returns are not correct? They don’t appear correct unless I did something wrong.
Context for the thread: I’m referring to the strategy section at https://wizardofodds.com/games/video-poker/tables/ultimate-x/
Quote: ThatDonGuyThink of it as base win + (multiplier - 1).
Also, this applies only if you intend to play again if you win; otherwise, use "normal" strategy (and, while you're at it, only play 5 credits instead of 10).
The base win value is what it normally pays. This is unaffected by the multiplier because the formula is used only to determine the strategy, and all of the payouts will be multiplied by the same amount; this would not change the strategy - just the expected return.
"Multiplier - 1" is the effect of the next hand on your strategy.
link to original post
Where does the 2x come from? Is there a parenthesis missing or something? Also the continuation value of future multipliers is not equal to 1 times the multiplier increase because the paytable with the strategy you are playing doesn’t return 100%. If you do this, you are overvaluing the future multipliers.
Quote: ThatDonGuyThink of it as base win + (multiplier - 1).
Also, this applies only if you intend to play again if you win; otherwise, use "normal" strategy (and, while you're at it, only play 5 credits instead of 10).
The base win value is what it normally pays. This is unaffected by the multiplier because the formula is used only to determine the strategy, and all of the payouts will be multiplied by the same amount; this would not change the strategy - just the expected return.
"Multiplier - 1" is the effect of the next hand on your strategy.
link to original post
I was surprised that I understood it the first time. Thank you