what is proof of cards not being random?

All hands would be shown in tourney. So all in a row.
Would have a high number of pocket suits played without gettin a flush?
Would having a ace in pocket, and never a ace in board cards, and ace in board cards when you don't
have a ace? Lets say a ace in pocket 7 times within 14 hands, and no ace every in board,and ace in board when no ace in pocket.
Would having the same pocket cards dealt to you over again? lets say getting a 8 card . Seven times out of
of eleven, hands in a row? Or two same pocket cards like 2-3 dealt four times in 10 in a row hands?
And this would keep repeating while changing to different card to repeat. ( 3-4 8-3 9-3 3-3 3-8 5-8 8-2
8-j 8-4 k-2 2-7 and so on.) OR ( 5-2 5-8 4-5 3-5 10-5 j-5 4-6 7-4 4-8 4-4 and so on.) these for many
hands in a row.
Would going for a long time without getting a pair of any? over 20 hands seems to many?
Or when i had a 3 in my pocket cards and a 3 was dealt in flop each. This went to 5 times it happen.
Please help me on this. I have done my homework. And would like to do this in a easy to read way.
I won't waste anyone's valuable time. But if you need 4 royal flushes in a row. i don't have that.


Wizard it would be great to hear from you. And a reader on a different post said I didnt have enough
hand history to persuade him. He asked for 5,ooo hands. So grasshopper went and got 5,000 hands. I'm ready
for you .....is hold'em I know some don't need to be told that. if the two pocket cards doesn't explain

One question at a time, please. Maybe somebody else will take one of your other ones, but I'm going to entertain the first one only.

The probability of completing a flush given suited hole cards, not counting a flush on the board in another suit, is [combin(11,3)*combin(39,2)+combin(11,4)*39+combin(11,5)]/combin(50,2) = 0.063998282.

The following table shows the probability of going 5-100 hands with suited hole cards without getting at least one flush.

Hands	Probability
5	0.718428
10	0.516139
15	0.370809
20	0.266399
25	0.191389
30	0.137499
35	0.098783
40	0.070969
45	0.050986
50	0.036630
55	0.026316
60	0.018906
65	0.013583
70	0.009758
75	0.007010
80	0.005037
85	0.003618
90	0.002600
95	0.001868
100	0.001342

To answer the title of your post, what you presented is defintely NOT proof of cards not being random. There are hundreds of ways you can examine a poker session after the fact, or any card game, and you'll always find a few ways to cut it where the results are in the tail of the bell curve. For the proper way to make a case of casino cheating, please see the second question in my FAQ about gambling on the Internet.

thanks, and your know that with one answer. comes a new version on same subject.
pocket suited and 2 matching suits on flop. It might matter that the 2 matching suit cards are in 1, and 2
position on board. Then it turning to be a dead hand...this is hold'em...


30. min later.. i asking the wrong ? whats the odds of pocket suits that doesn't draw no matching suit
on flop. And would you consider it strange to have it happen 20 times in a tournament?