I was under the impression that when an improper bet hits a blackjack for 3:2, the payoff is always rounded down to the nearest 50¢. I recently learned however that a surprising number of jurisdictions round the payout up instead of down.

What is the effect on the house advantage when the payout is rounded up instead of down?

On a $5.50 bet, getting paid $8.50 is a 17/11 payoff, or 1.5454.

On a $25.50 bet, getting paid $38.50 is a 77/51 payoff, or 1.5098. So clearly the returns diminish quickly.

Naturally if someone rounds up then it's in your interest to bet 5.50, as the 50c is a positive EV.

This only happens on a low-limit table where pink chips come into play often enough, and where low-limit players want every penny they are entitled to.

Although I have seen players go out of their way to confuse and piss off dealers by betting a rainbow of chips on a single bet - $7.50, $18.50, and so on. The extra time required to break down the bet when paying it off, along with the mental math needed by the dealer, is aggravating. Which is the whole point, usually.

It also becomes a nuisance in casinos that offer surrender as they have to round up to $2 when a bet with a $2.50 chip.

I played the $1 game a little bit, but never got a blackjack.

However, most of the time they give you a $2.50 chip and put the $1 chip back in the rack, hence you make $1.50. Makes things easier that way if someone puts a dollar toke for the dealer on the hand and it hits BJ.

Sounds about right.Quote:billryanI accidentally " discovered " this years ago and reckoned it was worth about a dollar an hour to the player.

Assume 60 hands per hour and 3 blackjacks per hour. Even at a full 50c roundup that’s a whopping $1.50 per hour.

Quote:Ace2Sounds about right.

Assume 60 hands per hour and 3 blackjacks per hour. Even at a full 50c roundup that’s a whopping $1.50 per hour.

Which is exactly enough to cancel out the HE on a $5 blackjack game with a 0.5% HE playing basic strategy.

Factor in 3 free beers per hour you’re at a 5% advantage!Quote:unJonWhich is exactly enough to cancel out the HE on a $5 blackjack game with a 0.5% HE playing basic strategy.

Quote:AlanMendelsonAnyone remember $1 blackjack at the old Sahara? Did they have fifty cent chips?

I played the $1 game a little bit, but never got a blackjack.

I think BJ paid even money.

Quote:Ace2Factor in 3 free beers per hour you’re at a 5% advantage!

Add in a set of WIN cards and an LVA matchplay and it's low roller paradise.

I haven’t been downtown in a while.

Quote:Ace2I assume that $5 Blackjack is available downtown only and maybe only midweek

I haven’t been downtown in a while.

You'll find $5 Blackjack at Red Rock and Suncoast. I think they even pay 3/2.

How can a casino even pay the dealers wage with that...before considering free drinks and overhead ?

I'm sure they may have, but the chances are they just use a 50 cent piece.Quote:AlanMendelsonAnyone remember $1 blackjack at the old Sahara? Did they have fifty cent chips?

I played the $1 game a little bit, but never got a blackjack.

No. BJ paid even money. For that reason I would double down on BJ. The looks I got were worth it in the entertainment value. Ditto for splitting tens.Quote:AlanMendelsonAnyone remember $1 blackjack at the old Sahara? Did they have fifty cent chips?

On a side note, in AC, the rule is that bets that can’t be paid correctly must be rounded up. That made $1 toke bets on 5,6,8,9 in craps the best bet in the house.

Quote:Deucekies(snip)

What is the effect on the house advantage when the payout is rounded up instead of down?

On a $5.50 bet, getting paid $8.50 is a 17/11 payoff, or 1.5454.

On a $25.50 bet, getting paid $38.50 is a 77/51 payoff, or 1.5098. So clearly the returns diminish quickly.

For the $5.50 bet example, I think there is about a 0.21% reduction in house edge (edit about 1120 pm: or a reduction of about 1.13 cents per hand).

Here is the formula I used, see below:

("Odds you are receiving for your BJ" - "odds you normally receive for a BJ") x ("Chance of the player having a BJ" x "the chance of the dealer not having a BJ")

(1.5454... - 1.5) x (1/21 x 20/21) = 0.0454.... x 1/22 = 0.002066... = ~ 0.21%

Note: I used approximate figures, rather than "100% accurate figures", for the chances of getting a BJ