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July 26th, 2015 at 10:21:19 AM
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First off please understand that I am in now way question the ILL 18. I understand that brilliant math minds have figured this out and that it is mathematically correct. I just am having a tough time understanding WHY some are what they are.

16 v. 10 S0 I completely understand. Now what I don't understand is why you would hit 16 v. 7 at any count (I know there is an index play for this but, I'm solely looking at ILL 18). You are just as likely to bust that 16 in a positive count and the dealers hand is far less strong and they are also more likely to bust. I would assume you hit 16 v. 7 bc while you are just as likely to bust you are more likely to actually win and or push bc the dealer has a 7 and that this greater chance of a win or push would prove to be more valuable over the long term than simply standing.

Please help me understand this. I have started to dabble in index plays and I like to understand why I'm doing what I'm doing though I already understand its fact. Thanks

16 v. 10 S0 I completely understand. Now what I don't understand is why you would hit 16 v. 7 at any count (I know there is an index play for this but, I'm solely looking at ILL 18). You are just as likely to bust that 16 in a positive count and the dealers hand is far less strong and they are also more likely to bust. I would assume you hit 16 v. 7 bc while you are just as likely to bust you are more likely to actually win and or push bc the dealer has a 7 and that this greater chance of a win or push would prove to be more valuable over the long term than simply standing.

Please help me understand this. I have started to dabble in index plays and I like to understand why I'm doing what I'm doing though I already understand its fact. Thanks