newb519
• Posts: 15
Joined: Sep 22, 2014
September 23rd, 2014 at 1:45:14 PM permalink
I'm having a little trouble with the statistics, so maybe some of you math wiz's can help me out.

I'm curious what the odds are of winning a hand at -1. If using a progressive betting system at a count of -1 or higher, and <0, would eliminate any odds of winning at that count, what affect would that have on your overall edge? Would this be a profitable camouflage if I were to wong out at <-1? If so, would it be profitable to progressively bet at -2 or greater, <0, and wong out at <-2?
Dieter
• Posts: 5609
Joined: Jul 23, 2014
September 23rd, 2014 at 2:11:51 PM permalink
You might find this interesting.

http://blackjackincolor.com/truecount5.htm
May the cards fall in your favor.
newb519
• Posts: 15
Joined: Sep 22, 2014
September 23rd, 2014 at 9:34:08 PM permalink
Thanks Dieter, I wouldn't have guessed it to look like that. I just ordered 'blackjack attack' so hopefully that will be it for elementary questions regarding statistics.
newb519
• Posts: 15
Joined: Sep 22, 2014
September 23rd, 2014 at 9:38:22 PM permalink
It's kind of funny though; I read that each value affects the odds by +/- .5%. Doesn't seem consistent with the graph.
Dieter