No House Advantage??
In Craps, it is well known that the pass line odds bet has no house advantage. Does that mean that if I put two bets of the same amount on both the pass and don't pass line, wait for a point to be established, and put odds on the point, that I have eliminated the house advantage? On the come out roll I get even money for a 2,3,7,11, or 12 by betting both, so those bets cancel out...and the odds bet has no advantage if a 4,5,6,8,9, or 10 is rolled! The amount of times I lose my pass line and odds bet will be more than made up for when I win with the odds. Is my math wrong?
Comments
I think you will find several threads that deal with this.
The 12 rolls: you lose your pass line flat bet but do not win on the DontPass bet.
Hmmm...well in the casino where I live the Field 12 pays triple. What if I incorporate a bet of 1/3 my pass/don't pass bets on the field? Like 15-15-5? What is the house advantage there?
Or even better (or worse)...putting a bet on the one-roll 12 at 30-1? The field is a one-roll bet anyways and if I'm only losing on a twelve with this system then the 30-1 will make up for any loss on the pass! Right?
>> ... will make up for any loss on the pass! Right?
Wrong.
Because every bet contains a house edge, hedging only makes things worse.
You'll find lot more info, and get more answers to your questions, by posting in the forum rather than in the blog.
The $1 bet wouldn't be every roll. It would ONLY be on comeout rolls because it's the comeout roll that gives the house advantage if betting the pass and don't pass. For all intents and purposes if someone didn't roll a 12 on the comeout roll and established a point then from there until the next comeout roll you are playing with no house advantage. If the average person "sevens out" after 6 rolls, meaning about every 7th roll is a comeout roll, then only betting the $1 Horn High on the comeout roll means I would only have to hit it 1-out-of-210 rolls to break even. And if I can do that then the pass/don't pass bets would break even and taking full odds obviously has no house advantage. Is that right? It seems right to me (kinda!).