Posted by nyyankee0101
Jul 13, 2010

In Craps, it is well known that the pass line odds bet has no house advantage. Does that mean that if I put two bets of the same amount on both the pass and don't pass line, wait for a point to be established, and put odds on the point, that I have eliminated the house advantage? On the come out roll I get even money for a 2,3,7,11, or 12 by betting both, so those bets cancel out...and the odds bet has no advantage if a 4,5,6,8,9, or 10 is rolled! The amount of times I lose my pass line and odds bet will be more than made up for when I win with the odds. Is my math wrong?

FleaStiff Jul 13, 2010

I think you will find several threads that deal with this.

The 12 rolls: you lose your pass line flat bet but do not win on the DontPass bet.

nyyankee0101 Jul 13, 2010

Hmmm...well in the casino where I live the Field 12 pays triple. What if I incorporate a bet of 1/3 my pass/don't pass bets on the field? Like 15-15-5? What is the house advantage there?

nyyankee0101 Jul 13, 2010

Or even better (or worse)...putting a bet on the one-roll 12 at 30-1? The field is a one-roll bet anyways and if I'm only losing on a twelve with this system then the 30-1 will make up for any loss on the pass! Right?

DJTeddyBear Jul 14, 2010

>> ... will make up for any loss on the pass! Right?

Wrong.

Because every bet contains a house edge, hedging only makes things worse.