Posted by Zevgadol
Jan 16, 2018

Ult TX Hold'em Trips Push

I sometimes play Ult TX Hold'em at Isle Casino, Pompano, FL. Private bankers take the action and house takes a rake from the bankers. I think Isle Casino operates in a dozen other locations.
The Blind pay table is 200 x for Royal Flush; 50 x for straight flush; 10 x for quads; 3 x for full house; 3/2 x for flush; and 1 x for straight. Blind pay table compares to regular blind table EXCEPT for Royal Flush.

Trips pay table is 50 x for Royal; 40 x for SF; 30 x for quads; 10 x for boat; 8 x for flush; 6 x for straight; 3 x for trips. The Full House, Flush and Straight pay tables are very generous relative to the typical trips tables. If my math serves me, the trips return favors the player. Except for a major wrinkle.

Major wrinkle: trips does not pay if player does not beat dealer. But trips is returned if dealer wins or pushes the hand. For example, if player has a flush and dealer has a full house, the trips bet does not pay out, But the trips bet is returned.

If both the dealer and have the same valued hand, there is no trips payout.

The questions are should the player a) play trips? and b) if so, should the trips play be greater than the ante-blind play? Any thoughts?



beachbumbabs Jan 17, 2018

Hi, and welcome.

You will get much better attention to your question if you post it as a thread rather than a blog. Use this link and the blue button "new thread", and just paste your blog there.

I also live in Florida , and UTH is my favorite game. However, the *must beat the dealer just kills that trips bet, although it's improved some if they're returning your bet on a,qualifying loss. I'll be interested to see what the math guys come up with.

gordonm888 Jan 28, 2018

It would be a very large calculation to do this rigorously. I did an approximate calculation, because I did not expect it to be close. I calculated that the House Advantage is approximately 0.45% on this bet.

If the trips bet always paid off (even when player loses or ties) I calculate a player advantage of about 13.96%. So, as Babs says, the stipulation that the Player hand must be a winner is a big deal.

My calculation should be exactly correct for all player hands better than trips, but I made some approximations for calculating the frequency of winning Trips hands. The approximation I made could easily effect the calculated House Edge by more than 0.5% in either direction, which means that I can't tell you for certain that the House does indeed have an advantage.

I'll think about this further, but maybe someone else can give you a more reliable answer.