JB
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JB
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MaxPen
June 9th, 2018 at 3:47:19 PM permalink
Quote: ThatDonGuy

Which game on the Wizard's site lets you enter separate values for suited straight flushes?


There isn't one. He used the average prize for a SF and a Bonus Poker style game to get the 100.66% figure, which of course is a little less than optimal.

I just analyzed the game with optimal strategy and came up with a return of 100.896%.
MaxPen
MaxPen
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June 9th, 2018 at 4:54:34 PM permalink
Quote: ThatDonGuy

Which game on the Wizard's site lets you enter separate values for suited straight flushes?



I just averaged the 4 suit pays together as you are just likely to make a straight flush in either suit. Maybe I am wrong to do that.
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HugoSlavia
HugoSlavia
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June 9th, 2018 at 5:19:49 PM permalink
Quote: MaxPen

I just averaged the 4 suit pays together as you are just likely to make a straight flush in either suit.


Optimally, you would play more aggressively for the straight flush in a higher-paying suit. Apparently the overall return can be approximated by averaging the individual returns for each suit (98.94% for clubs, 99.5% for spades, 100.85% for diamonds, and 104.29% for hearts).
RS
RS
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June 9th, 2018 at 5:40:52 PM permalink
Quote: MaxPen

I just averaged the 4 suit pays together as you are just likely to make a straight flush in either suit. Maybe I am wrong to do that.


That’s wrong. You’re far more likely to get a hearts SF than a clubs SF (or whatever the 2k vs 250 coins SFs are).

I don’t know exactly how to do it, other than run it on different software that allows for it. But I would probably run it on WOO for all 4 paytables, then average all the returns. That still technically wouldn’t be right, either, but I think it’d get closer to the actual return.
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AxelWolf
AxelWolf
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June 9th, 2018 at 11:59:58 PM permalink
Quote: MaxPen

I just averaged the 4 suit pays together as you are just likely to make a straight flush in either suit. Maybe I am wrong to do that.

It's fine that you did it like that, as long as you knew/know it wasn't going to be 100% accurate.
♪♪Now you swear and kick and beg us That you're not a gamblin' man Then you find you're back in Vegas With a handle in your hand♪♪ Your black cards can make you money So you hide them when you're able In the land of casinos and money You must put them on the table♪♪ You go back Jack do it again roulette wheels turinin' 'round and 'round♪♪ You go back Jack do it again♪♪
ThatDonGuy
ThatDonGuy
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JB
June 10th, 2018 at 4:03:00 PM permalink
Quote: JB

There isn't one. He used the average prize for a SF and a Bonus Poker style game to get the 100.66% figure, which of course is a little less than optimal.

I just analyzed the game with optimal strategy and came up with a return of 100.896%.


I finally got my modified analyzer working (it took me forever to find a mistake involving counting 4-card-discard plays), and I confirm that number.
loldongs
loldongs
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June 11th, 2018 at 10:50:23 AM permalink
Quote: RS

That’s wrong. You’re far more likely to get a hearts SF than a clubs SF (or whatever the 2k vs 250 coins SFs are).

I don’t know exactly how to do it, other than run it on different software that allows for it. But I would probably run it on WOO for all 4 paytables, then average all the returns. That still technically wouldn’t be right, either, but I think it’d get closer to the actual return.



why is it wrong? the RNG of the machine and the code itself doesn't care, and each hand is dealt from an independently shuffled 52-card deck, is it not (assuming these are class III machines) ?

the combinatorics of dealing five cards from a 52-card deck after a shuffle and drawing {0-5} more to arrive at a final destination five card hand, for which payout is evaluated via LUT -- how does this facilitate the player being "more likely" to get a hearts SF than a clubs SF?
MaxPen
MaxPen
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June 11th, 2018 at 10:55:46 AM permalink
Quote: loldongs

why is it wrong? the RNG of the machine and the code itself doesn't care, and each hand is dealt from an independently shuffled 52-card deck, is it not (assuming these are class III machines) ?

the combinatorics of dealing five cards from a 52-card deck after a shuffle and drawing {0-5} more to arrive at a final destination five card hand, for which payout is evaluated via LUT -- how does this facilitate the player being "more likely" to get a hearts SF than a clubs SF?



I think he is referring to the use of optimal strategy related to the different suits as it would change as the payback for the hand increases.
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Ibeatyouraces
Ibeatyouraces
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June 11th, 2018 at 10:57:47 AM permalink
Because of it pays a lot more, you're more likely to go after one in hearts than another suit.

Which finishing hand is more likely in 9/6 JoB. A♠️ K♠️ Q♠️ J♠️ 10♠️ or A♠️ 2♠️ 3♠️ 4♠️ 5♠️?
DUHHIIIIIIIII HEARD THAT!

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