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GAME OF CRAPS. PLEASE HELP
| April 18th, 2011 at 3:09:00 PM permalink | |
| h0tmamma69 Member since: Apr 18, 2011 Threads: 1 Posts: 1 | In the game of CRAPS, when playing 100 games what would the theoretical probability of losing by rolling a 2 be? pleaseeeee help |
| April 18th, 2011 at 3:21:35 PM permalink | |
| odiousgambit Member since: Nov 9, 2009 Threads: 174 Posts: 2415 | you mean losing on the come-out roll, what can be called one hand, in 100 hands? "Baccarat is a game whereby the croupier gathers in money with a flexible sculling oar, then rakes it home. If I could have borrowed his oar I would have stayed." Mark Twain |
| April 18th, 2011 at 3:26:10 PM permalink | |
| kp Member since: Feb 28, 2011 Threads: 7 Posts: 422 | Offhand I'd estimate at better than 80%. |
| April 18th, 2011 at 3:40:54 PM permalink | |
| Doc Member since: Feb 27, 2010 Threads: 21 Posts: 2825 |
Poorly formed question. For example, you haven't even said what kind of wager you are making. I'll assume you are referring to making a pass line bet. Next, you aren't clear whether you mean the probability of losing at least once, losing every time, or the probability on each pass line bet. So here's my answer: Each pass line bet has 1 chance in 36 (2.777%) of losing on a come out roll of craps 2. Doing that at least once in 100 come out rolls has a probability of p=1-(35/36)^100=94.022%. But that might not be what you are trying to ask. |
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