ewjones080
ewjones080
  • Threads: 33
  • Posts: 456
Joined: Feb 22, 2012
June 8th, 2012 at 5:26:59 PM permalink
This is a craps question. Let's say one player plays against the house. Let's say they let him shoot the dice without a passline bet. Let's say he buys the 4 and 10 for $35 with a $1 vig paid up front. What kind of bankroll does the HOUSE need to have less than a 1% risk of ruin for a four hour session? What about buying the 5/9 or the 6/8.

Edit: Let's also say he ALWAYS works his bets.
WongBo
WongBo
  • Threads: 62
  • Posts: 2126
Joined: Feb 3, 2012
June 8th, 2012 at 5:43:24 PM permalink
i know this is theoretical, but why would he buy the 6/8 at all,
and if the vig is paid up front, he wouldn't buy the 5/9 either..
In a bet, there is a fool and a thief. - Proverb.
ewjones080
ewjones080
  • Threads: 33
  • Posts: 456
Joined: Feb 22, 2012
June 10th, 2012 at 11:47:18 PM permalink
Well it was kind of a weird question. My real question is how a guy figures out risk of ruin on craps. Say I buy the 4/10 for $20 each with vig up front. How much would I need to have less than 1% chance of losing everything before 4 hours. If it's $2000, would I then need $3500 for $35 if it's still a $1 vig, or will less suffice. Or could I get away with less if it's vig paid on win only?

The same could be asked if placing the 6/8.
mustangsally
mustangsally
  • Threads: 25
  • Posts: 2463
Joined: Mar 29, 2011
June 11th, 2012 at 1:53:46 AM permalink
removed
silly
I Heart Vi Hart
  • Jump to: